An Underwater Seal Drainage System (UWSD) is a device used to drain air or fluid from the chest (pleural) cavity.
1. The three reasons to insert a UWSD are as follows: Drainage of fluid or air to re-expand the lung. Treatment of traumatic chest injury. Control of pleural effusion or empyema.
2. An UWSD is inserted to drain fluid or air from the pleural cavity in the lungs to avoid building pressure that can cause collapse of the lungs, hemothorax, or pneumothorax.
3. An UWSD is inserted to restore negative pressure within the pleural cavity so that the lung can expand and function correctly.
4. The intervention for a patient with a pneumothorax is the insertion of an UWSD, which involves draining air from the pleural cavity.
5. In the suction control chamber, you want to see a constant bubbling of air.
6. Vigorous bubbling indicates that there is a significant air leak in the pleural cavity.
7. The water seal chamber prevents air from entering the pleural cavity and stops the backflow of fluid into the pleural cavity.
8. With breathing, you want to see regular tidaling in the water seal chamber.
9.This is known as tidaling, and it indicates that the lung is expanding and contracting.
10. As the lung expands, the fluid in the pleural cavity is drained into the UWSD.
11. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak.
12. The two indications of tidaling are the presence of air or fluid in the pleural cavity and that the lung is expanding and contracting.
13. A lockage will be indicated by a lack of tidaling in the water seal chamber.
14. The air leak gauge is usually located at the patient's bedside.
15. The collection chamber should be assessed every 2 to 4 hours after insertion.
16. You must notify the doctor about the drainage if there is more than 100ml of bright red blood after the first hour of placement.
17. Bright red blood indicates arterial bleeding.
18. The chest tube should be clamped if there is more than 100 ml of bright red blood in the collection chamber.
19. The chest tube should be clamped to prevent air from entering the pleural cavity and causing a tension pneumothorax.
20. Why are pain meds not the first intervention for bright red blood?Pain meds are not the first intervention for bright red blood because the cause of the bleeding must be determined first.
21. If there is dark blood draining, you should check the vital signs and contact the physician.
22. No, dark blood is not normal.
23. When there are changes in the drainage into the UWSD, the patient's vital signs should be assessed first.
24. The form of assessment should be a physical assessment.
25. A change in the patient's vital signs indicates a change in their condition.
26. A change in the patient's vital signs indicates that they may be in respiratory distress or experiencing bleeding.
27. The follow-up care will be determined by the physician based on the patient's condition.
28. The priority care for a patient with a three-chamber drainage system for a hemothorax is to monitor their vital signs and ensure that the drainage system is functioning correctly.
29. We do not strip or milk the tubing.
30. The patient should be assessed every 2 hours, and a physical assessment must be done.
31. We assess this to monitor the patient's condition for any changes.
32. Subcutaneous emphysema or surgical emphysema is the accumulation of air or gas in the subcutaneous tissue.
33. You can identify it by a palpable, crepitus feeling under the skin.
34. Subcutaneous emphysema is normal when it is localized to the chest and neck. It is not normal when it spreads beyond the chest and neck.
Learn more about Underwater Seal Drainage System (UWSD)
https://brainly.com/question/32928421
#SPJ11
An Underwater Seal Drainage System (UWSD) is a device used to drain air or fluid from the chest (pleural) cavity.
1. The three reasons to insert a UWSD are as follows: Drainage of fluid or air to re-expand the lung. Treatment of traumatic chest injury. Control of pleural effusion or empyema.
2. An UWSD is inserted to drain fluid or air from the pleural cavity in the lungs to avoid building pressure that can cause collapse of the lungs, hemothorax, or pneumothorax.
3. An UWSD is inserted to restore negative pressure within the pleural cavity so that the lung can expand and function correctly.
4. The intervention for a patient with a pneumothorax is the insertion of an UWSD, which involves draining air from the pleural cavity.
5. In the suction control chamber, you want to see a constant bubbling of air.
6. Vigorous bubbling indicates that there is a significant air leak in the pleural cavity.
7. The water seal chamber prevents air from entering the pleural cavity and stops the backflow of fluid into the pleural cavity.
8. With breathing, you want to see regular tidaling in the water seal chamber.
9.This is known as tidaling, and it indicates that the lung is expanding and contracting.
10. As the lung expands, the fluid in the pleural cavity is drained into the UWSD.
11. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak.
12. The two indications of tidaling are the presence of air or fluid in the pleural cavity and that the lung is expanding and contracting.
13. A lockage will be indicated by a lack of tidaling in the water seal chamber.
14. The air leak gauge is usually located at the patient's bedside.
15. The collection chamber should be assessed every 2 to 4 hours after insertion.
16. You must notify the doctor about the drainage if there is more than 100ml of bright red blood after the first hour of placement.
17. Bright red blood indicates arterial bleeding.
18. The chest tube should be clamped if there is more than 100 ml of bright red blood in the collection chamber.
19. The chest tube should be clamped to prevent air from entering the pleural cavity and causing a tension pneumothorax.
20. Why are pain meds not the first intervention for bright red blood?Pain meds are not the first intervention for bright red blood because the cause of the bleeding must be determined first.
21. If there is dark blood draining, you should check the vital signs and contact the physician.
22. No, dark blood is not normal.
23. When there are changes in the drainage into the UWSD, the patient's vital signs should be assessed first.
24. The form of assessment should be a physical assessment.
25. A change in the patient's vital signs indicates a change in their condition.
26. A change in the patient's vital signs indicates that they may be in respiratory distress or experiencing bleeding.
27. The follow-up care will be determined by the physician based on the patient's condition.
28. The priority care for a patient with a three-chamber drainage system for a hemothorax is to monitor their vital signs and ensure that the drainage system is functioning correctly.
29. We do not strip or milk the tubing.
30. The patient should be assessed every 2 hours, and a physical assessment must be done.
31. We assess this to monitor the patient's condition for any changes.
32. Subcutaneous emphysema or surgical emphysema is the accumulation of air or gas in the subcutaneous tissue.
33. You can identify it by a palpable, crepitus feeling under the skin.
34. Subcutaneous emphysema is normal when it is localized to the chest and neck. It is not normal when it spreads beyond the chest and neck.
Learn more about Underwater Seal Drainage System (UWSD)
brainly.com/question/32928421
#SPJ11
The prescriber orders a 27 kis child to have 100% of maintenance flulds, Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100ml per kg Second 10 kg at 50ml perkg All remaining ks at 20mi per kig. Calculate the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL. per hour: 136.7 mL/hr 70 mL/hr 68.3 mL/hr 102 mL/hr
The child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.
The prescriber orders a 27 kg child to have 100% of maintenance fluids. Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100 ml per kg. Second 10 kg at 50 ml per kg. All remaining kgs at 20 ml per kg.
The formula for calculating maintenance fluids is: First 10 kg: 100 ml per kg. Next 10 kg: 50 ml per kg. All remaining kg: 20 ml per kg.
Now, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour will be calculated as follows: First 10 kg: 10 kg x 100 ml/kg = 1000 ml. Next 10 kg: 10 kg x 50 ml/kg = 500 ml.
All remaining kg: 7 kg x 20 ml/kg = 140 ml. Total fluids required in 24 hours = 1000 ml + 500 ml + 140 ml = 1640 ml
Therefore, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour = 1640 ml/24 hours = 68.3 ml/hr. Therefore, the child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.
To know more about fluid refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/1823632#
#SPJ11
Nursing Note: Brad Jones, a 54-year-old Caucasian male, is in the emergency department reporting severe diffuse abdominal pain. He told the triage nurse that he swallowed part of a toothpick from his chicken cordon bleu dinner last night. He has profuse diaphoresis; his shirt is drenched with perspitation. While ambulating to his room, he was holding his abdomen and moaning. His vital signs are BP 128/72, HR88, RR 22, temperature of 98.8 ∘
. and SpO298% on room air. His skin is cool and moist, and his abdomen is distended. 1. What are the top three priority assessment findings or cues that must be recognized as clinically significant by the nurse? a. b. 2. What is the underlying cause/pathophysiology? a. 3. What body systems will you most thoroughly assess? a, b. 4. What is a priority nursing diagnosis? a. 5. What is the patient likely feeling right now?
1) The top three are;
Severe diffuse abdominal pain
Profuse diaphoresis and cool, moist skin
Abdominal distention
2) The underlying cause/pathophysiology in this case is likely a gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation caused by swallowing part of a toothpick.
3) Assess the Cardiovascular system
4) The nurse should assess and monitor the intensity of the pain
5) The patient is likely feeling intense pain, discomfort, and anxiety due to the severe abdominal pain
What is the diagnosis?The ingesting of a portion of a toothpick most likely resulted in a gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation, which is the case's underlying etiology and pathophysiology. The digestive tract may become damaged or obstructed as a result of the toothpick, which could result in complications and excruciating abdominal pain.
The patient's vital indicators, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and skin temperature (coolness, dampness), show that the cardiovascular system needs to be regularly monitored. It is critical to look for shock or compromised perfusion symptoms.
Learn more about diagnosis:https://brainly.com/question/32679663
#SPJ4
what is the history of dental assistant by summarizing
the chapter one of Modern Dental Assistant text.
Dental assistants are an essential part of dental health care and have a rich history that goes back many years. The chapter one of Modern Dental Assistant text by Doni L. Bird and Debbie S. Robinson explores the history of dental assisting in detail.
Dental assistants were initially known as "Ladies in Attendance," according to the text. It was customary for male dentists to hire women to assist them with dental procedures, including cleaning instruments and preparing materials. This practice continued until the early 20th century, when women began to enter the dental profession on a larger scale. With more women dentists, the role of dental assistants became more specialized and required a higher level of training.
Today, dental assistants perform a wide range of duties, from patient care and chairside assisting to office management and laboratory work. They work alongside dentists and dental hygienists to ensure patients receive the best possible care. Dental assisting is a rewarding and in-demand career that offers a variety of opportunities for those who are passionate about oral health care.
To learn more about Dental visit;
https://brainly.com/question/30457134
#SPJ11
A cohort study (n=1200) exploring the association between second-hand smoke
exposure and lung cancer risk found a moderate increase in risk (RR 1.85 p = 0.07).
Which of the following is correct regarding the result?
a) The association may not be true in the study population.
©b) Random sampling error is not occurring in this study.
O c) We can reject the null hypothesis.
O d) The p-value suggests there is no association in the study sample.
A cohort study (n=1200) exploring the association between second-hand smoke exposure and lung cancer risk found a moderate increase in risk (RR 1.85 p = 0.07).
Regarding the result, the following is correct:
a) The association may not be true in the study population.
b) Random sampling error is not occurring in this study.
c) We can reject the null hypothesis.
d) The p-value suggests there is no association in the study sample.
The correct answer is that the association may not be true in the study population.
A p-value is the likelihood of obtaining the observed effect or a more extreme outcome if the null hypothesis is true. If the p-value is less than or equal to 0.05, it is commonly stated that there is a statistically significant effect, and the null hypothesis can be rejected. If the p-value is higher than 0.05, the result is not statistically significant, and the null hypothesis is not rejected.
A p-value of 0.07 is insufficient to reject the null hypothesis in the study sample. A relative risk of 1.85 suggests that the risk of lung cancer among people exposed to second-hand smoke is 1.85 times that of people who have never been exposed to second-hand smoke. However, as the p-value is greater than 0.05, it may indicate that the association is not statistically significant and may not be true in the study population.
To learn more about cancer visit;
https://brainly.com/question/32476911
#SPJ11
Viva Voce Scenario
You are working as a registered nurse in a cardiology ward, buddied with a nursing student, Lachlan. You are assigned to care for Mrs Arnold, who was admitted with a dysrrhythmia. You note that Mrs Arnold has been charted 200mgamiodarone (Cordarone), an antidysrhythmic. Lachlan asksyou if you could explain the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone) to him.
Question 1:Explain to Lachlan the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone).
You take Mrs Arnold's blood pressure and note it is lower than her previous reading. Mrs Arnold asks you to explain why thisis happening.
Question 2:Provide an explanation to Mrs Arnoldwhy hypotension is one of the side-effects of amiodarone (Cordarone)
Lachlan asks you why amiodarone (Cordarone) is used.
Question 3:Explain to Lachlan why amiodarone (Cordarone) is used.
5 days later, Mrs Arnold is cleared for discharge. You approach Mrs Arnold before she leaves and offer her some advice.
Question 4:Explain to Mrs Arnold what considerations she needs to have when taking amiodarone (Cordarone).
General questions, not related to scenario
Question 5:Briefly provide a summary of what you learned from: a) your answer to your Weekly Topic Question; b) the postings that your read from your peers in your tutorial group.
Question 6: Choose one drug that you have learned to date in this subject.
(a) Provide the generic name of this drug and the class
(b) What is the mechanism of action that resulted in that specific therapeutic
effect?
1: Amiodarone (Cordarone) works through multiple mechanisms to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal rhythms.
2: Hypotension is a side effect of amiodarone (Cordarone) due to its ability to cause peripheral vasodilation and decrease systemic vascular resistance.
3: Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias by regulating electrical signals in the heart and restoring a normal rhythm.
1: The mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone) is complex and not fully understood. It exhibits antiarrhythmic effects through multiple mechanisms, including prolongation of the action potential duration, inhibition of adrenergic stimulation, calcium channel blockade, and blocking of potassium channels.
2: Hypotension is one of the side effects of amiodarone (Cordarone) due to its vasodilatory effects. Amiodarone can cause relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels, leading to peripheral vasodilation.
3: Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used for the treatment of various cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation. It is particularly effective in managing life-threatening arrhythmias that have not responded to other medications.
To learn more about amiodarone follow the link:
https://brainly.com/question/30396494
#SPJ4
The correct question is:
You are working as a registered nurse in a cardiology ward, buddying with a nursing student, Lachlan. You are assigned to care for Mrs. Arnold, who was admitted with dysrhythmia. You note that Mrs. Arnold has been chartered on 200 mg of amiodarone (Cordarone), an antidysrhythmic. Lachlan asks you if you could explain the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone) to him.
Question 1:Explain to Lachlan the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone). Mrs. Arnold's blood prenote thatit is lower than her previous reading. Mrs Arnold asks you to explain why thisis happening.
Question 2:Provide an explanation to Mrs Arnoldwhy hypotension is one of the side-effects of amiodarone (Cordarone) Lachlan asks you why amiodarone (Cordarone) is used.
Question 3:Explain to Lachlan why amiodarone (cordarone) is used. Five days later, Mrs. Arnold is cleared for discharge. You approach Mrs. Arnold before she leaves and offer her some advice.
Cite reference page(s) from the Timby textbook.
Susan Watts, a 30-year-old female client, was diagnosed with schizophrenia and was treated with paliperidone (Invega) 9 mg PO every day and benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg PO2× a day. The client arrives at the clinic and is exhibiting the following symptoms. She is repeating what is said to her (echolalia) and is telling you that the sirens are loud and the paramedics are working hard to save the man. She yells over at the paramedics, she sees and tells them they are doing a great job. She has a flat affect and is bouncing her knees up and down as she sits staring at the wall where she is seeing and hearing the hallucination. Her husband is with her and stated he is worried about his wife because she has not bathed, washed, or combed her hair for 2 days now. She has not gone to work for the past week. He stated that she keeps failing to take her medications even with reminding. The client’s husband asks the LPN/LVN if there is any way the drug therapy could be managed differently so his wife will be more compliant.
(Learning Objective14)
a. What can be done to help improve the client’s compliance with the medications?
b. Explain the administration considerations for the prescribed medications. (Use a drug handbook or use
a. The medication regimen can be changed to include long-acting injectable medication instead of oral medication to improve the client’s compliance with the medications. It can be given every two weeks rather than every day, ensuring the client takes the medication, and there is no need for daily medication administration.
b. Explain the administration considerations for the prescribed medications. (Use a drug handbook or use a reference page(s) from the Timby textbook.)Invega (paliperidone) is used to treat schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder. It is an antipsychotic medication that functions by balancing the levels of dopamine and serotonin in the brain. Paliperidone is available in extended-release tablets in dosages ranging from 1.5 mg to 12 mg. The suggested starting dose is 6 mg per day. It should be taken once a day, with or without food. It must be swallowed whole and should not be chewed, divided, or crushed.
Cogentin (benztropine) is an anticholinergic medication that is used to alleviate Parkinsonism and extrapyramidal disorders caused by antipsychotic medications such as Invega. It helps to minimize involuntary movements, tremors, and rigidity. Benztropine is available in 0.5-mg and 1-mg tablets and is taken orally. The usual dosage range is 2 mg to 6 mg per day, divided into two or three doses. It should be taken at the same time every day, with or without meals.
To learn more about medications visit;
https://brainly.com/question/28335307
#SPJ11
A 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds is to take ferrous sulfate (feosol) 6 mg/kg/d po. how many milligram will the child receive per dose?
Since we assumed the dosage is once a day, the child will receive 87 mg per dose.
Therefore, the child will receive 87 mg per dose of ferrous sulfate (Feosol).
To calculate the dosage of ferrous sulfate (Feosol) for a 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds, we need to convert the weight to kilograms.
1 pound is approximately 0.45 kilograms, so the child weighs approximately 14.5 kilograms (32 pounds × 0.45 kg/pound).
Next, we need to determine the dosage per kilogram. The dosage is 6 mg/kg/day.
So, to find the dosage per dose, we divide the daily dosage by the number of doses per day. In this case, we are not given the number of doses per day. Assuming it is once a day, we will calculate based on that assumption.
The child will receive [tex]6 mg/kg/day × 14.5 kg/day = 87[/tex]mg/day.
To know more about Assuming visit:
https://brainly.com/question/17168459
#SPJ11
Pitocin (oxycotin) at 40 ml/hr. Supplied: One liter bag of normal saline containing 30 units of Pitocin. Directions: Determine how many units of Pitocin the patient is receiving per hour.
Let's take a look at the question:Supplied: One-liter bag of normal saline containing 30 units of Pitocin. Pitocin (oxytocin) at 40 ml/hr.Directions: Determine how many units of Pitocin the patient is receiving per hour.
Pitocin is a medication used to induce labor or improve contractions during childbirth. Pitocin (oxytocin) is a natural hormone produced by the pituitary gland. It induces the uterus to contract, helping labor progress and delivery. It comes as a solution in a 100 mL glass bottle, which contains 10 units of oxytocin per mL.
First, convert the supplied Pitocin to ml; a liter is 1000 ml, and the bag contains 30 units of Pitocin.1000 ml / 30 units = 33.33 ml/u.
Now that we have the concentration of Pitocin per milliliter (33.33 ml/u), we can multiply it by the rate (40 ml/hr).33.33 ml/u x 40 ml/hr = 1333.33 u/hr.
Since there are only 10 units of Pitocin per ml, we must divide our answer by 10.1333.33 u/hr / 10 = 133.33 u/hr.
Therefore, the patient is receiving 1200 units of Pitocin per hour, as a one-liter bag of normal saline contains 30 units of Pitocin.
Learn more about Pitocin: https://brainly.com/question/31214254
#SPJ11
) Discuss poor EMR/HER implementations in healthcare organizations (5
marks)
B) Discuss potential barriers that might hinder the adoption of EHR/EMR’s in a
healthcare organization C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMR’s D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMR’s E) With some of the problems provided in the previous questions you
answered, give examples of how those problems can be changed into
solutions and how you would implement that change within healthcare (5
marks)
A) Poor EMR/EHR implementations can lead to data integrity, and medical security breaches .
B) Potential barriers to EHR/EMR adoption include financial constraints.
C) Problems with actual EHR/EMR systems include interoperability challenges.
D) Factors affecting EHR/EMR systems include vendor selection.
A) Poor EMR/EHR implementations in healthcare organizations can have several concerning implications: Data integrity: Inadequate implementation can lead to errors in data entry or transfer, compromising patient safety and quality of care. Medical security breaches: Unauthorized access to physical areas within medical facilities can lead to the theft of medical equipment, pharmaceuticals, or sensitive documents containing patient information.
B) Potential barriers to EHR/EMR adoption in healthcare organizations may include Financial constraints: The initial cost of implementing an EHR/EMR system, along with ongoing maintenance expenses, can be a significant barrier for healthcare.
C) Problems with actual EHR/EMR systems can include Interoperability challenges: Incompatibility between different EHR/EMR systems can hinder seamless data exchange and integration with other healthcare systems.
D) Factors that can affect EHR/EMR systems include Vendor selection: The choice of EHR/EMR vendor and the level of support provided can influence the success and effectiveness of the system's implementation.
To learn more about medical follow the link:
https://brainly.com/question/30958581
#SPJ4
The correct question is:
Discuss poor EMR/HER implementations in healthcare organizations (explain all).
A. Concerning the poor EMR/HER
B) Discuss potential barriers that might hinder the adoption of EHR/EMRs in a healthcare organization
C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMRs
D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMRs
75 year old widow female lives alone with home assistance, she recently fell in bathroom and broke her right dominant hand. Her daughter lives 5 miles away. The elderly woman goes to nearby ER for care. Daughter tells Nurse she has recently been slightly confused and is losing weight. PMH: Obesity, Diabetic type 2, HTN. The daughter asked is it safe for her to be living alone? What can be done to keep her independent and safe? Meds: Hydrochloride 25mg daily Diet: regular Wears glasses Ambulates without cane. Think about safety when writing up your PICOT Question. Should she live alone? Move to Assisted Nursing Home? What are the risks of falls for Elderly? Home Safety? How do we keep senior independent safely at home?
A 75-year-old widow with a history of obesity, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension recently fell and broke her dominant hand. Her daughter is concerned about her mother's safety and independence. Potential PICOT questions focus on fall risk, home safety, and independent living for seniors.
In assessing the situation, it is important to consider the patient's physical limitations, cognitive changes, and recent fall. Falls are a significant risk for the elderly and can result in serious injuries. Home safety becomes crucial in preventing falls and promoting independence. Evaluating the home environment, removing hazards, installing grab bars, and improving lighting can help reduce the risk of falls. Assessing the patient's cognitive function and identifying the underlying cause of confusion and weight loss is also essential.
PICOT questions can be formulated to guide further research and interventions. Examples include: "What are the effective strategies to reduce fall risk in elderly individuals living alone?", "How can home modifications contribute to the safety and independence of seniors?", or "What interventions promote independence and safety for seniors with cognitive decline?"
To know more about hypertension here: brainly.com/question/30198399
#SPJ11
The nurse is composing a multi-generational schematic description of biologic/legal/emotional relationships from generation to generation. This is known as: Select one: O a. Boundaries O b. Scapegoating O c. Genogram O d. Triangulation
The nurse is composing a multi-generational schematic description called a Genogram(Option c) of biological/legal/emotional relationships from generation to generation.
What is a Genogram?
A genogram is a pictorial family tree that depicts the relationships between individuals across many generations. It demonstrates family patterns such as mental and physical illnesses, and physical or psychological traits that could be passed down from one generation to the next. It might help to identify connections and conflicts that may influence mental health, including substance abuse and addiction, depression, and anxiety disorders.
It is a method used to assess family dynamics and figure out how they can be impacting an individual, as well as a way of getting a better understanding of family history and past generations. It is utilized by a variety of professionals, including family therapists, psychologists, and physicians, to assist in diagnosing and treating a wide range of issues in individuals and families.
Therefore, the multi-generational schematic description called a Genogram(Option c) is used to compose biological/legal/emotional relationships from generation to generation.
To learn more about Genogram visit:
https://brainly.com/question/7275544
#SPJ11
The epidemiologic factors that contribute to infectious disease outbreaks are the roles of the host, the __________, the environmental circumstances, and time-related issues.
The epidemiologic factors that contribute to infectious disease outbreaks are the roles of the host, the agent, the environmental circumstances, and time-related issues. The role of the host is critical in the transmission of infectious diseases.
The host, or the organism that becomes infected, may spread the disease through direct or indirect contact. Host factors that may contribute to infectious disease outbreaks include age, immune status, genetic susceptibility, and behavior.
The agent, or the organism that causes the disease, is another important epidemiologic factor. Agents may include viruses, bacteria, fungi, parasites, or prions. Some agents may be more contagious than others, or may cause more severe disease.
Environmental circumstances also play a role in infectious disease outbreaks. For example, contaminated food or water can spread disease, as can poor sanitation or overcrowding. Climate and weather can also impact the spread of disease, as some agents thrive in specific environmental conditions.
Finally, time-related issues may contribute to infectious disease outbreaks. These can include seasonal factors, such as the flu season, or changes in the ecology of an area, such as deforestation or urbanization. Understanding these epidemiologic factors is critical in preventing and controlling infectious disease outbreaks.
To know more about environmental visit :
https://brainly.com/question/21976584
#SPJ11
what will you say if someone come up to you andask if
you have completed your advaced directive?explain why or
whynot?explain atleast 2sentence.
If someone asked me if I have completed my advanced directive, I would say yes or no. An advanced directive outlines a person's medical treatment preferences in case they become unable to make their own decisions.
If someone came up to me and asked if I have completed my advanced directive, I would answer yes or no, depending on whether or not I have completed it. An advanced directive is a legal document that outlines a person's medical treatment preferences in case they become unable to make their own decisions due to illness or injury. It is important to have an advanced directive in place to ensure that a person's wishes are respected and followed when they are unable to communicate for themselves.
If I have not completed my advanced directive, I would explain that it is an important document to have in case something happens to me and I am unable to make my own medical decisions. There are many reasons why someone may not have completed their advanced directive, such as not knowing what it is, not wanting to think about it, or not knowing how to complete it. However, it is important to have one in place to ensure that one's wishes are respected and followed in a medical emergency.
Learn more about advanced directive here:
https://brainly.com/question/31714371
#SPJ11
Kiara is a nurse manager at a busy hospital in Chicago, Illinois. A medical error at the facility by one of the nurses recently resulted in the death of a patient. Kiara has been talking with hospital administration about implementing Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) to prevent future medication errors. The hospital administration has decided not to implement this technology? Which are common reasons hospital administrators may be opposed to implementing BCMA? Select all that apply.
A. Will create wasteful redundancy
B. Will take too long to install
C. Will require hours of training
D. Will be too expensive
E. Has not be shown to reduce errors
Kiara is a nurse manager at a busy hospital in Chicago, Illinois. A medical error at the facility by one of the nurses recently resulted in the death of a patient. Kiara has been talking with the hospital administration about implementing Bar Code Medication Administration BCMA to prevent future medication errors.
The hospital administration has decided not to implement this technology. Common reasons hospital administrators may be opposed to implementing BCMA are A. Will create wasteful redundancy B. Will take too long to install C. Will require hours of training D. Will be too expensive E. Has not been shown to reduce errors.
The common reasons hospital administrators may be opposed to implementing BCMA are given below: Will create wasteful redundancy. Will be too expensive.Has not been shown to reduce errors.
Hospital administration may oppose BCMA for a variety of reasons, including cost, time, and whether it is necessary. Some may argue that it is an unnecessary expense, particularly if the hospital does not have a high number of medication errors. Hospitals that are resistant to change may also be hesitant to implement new technology, preferring to stick with traditional methods of managing patient care.
Learn more about BCMA: https://brainly.com/question/31355920
#SPJ11
Do you think other diseases such as COVID-19 could be eradicated from human populations? Why or why not?
While it is difficult to predict the future with certainty, complete eradication of diseases like COVID-19 from human populations is unlikely.
Diseases like COVID-19 are caused by highly infectious pathogens that can spread rapidly and adapt to their environments. Achieving complete eradication would require a combination of factors such as effective vaccines, widespread vaccination coverage, rigorous public health measures, and global cooperation. However, viruses can mutate, new variants can emerge, and some individuals may remain susceptible due to various factors like vaccine hesitancy or limited access to healthcare. Additionally, the interconnectedness of the world through travel and trade makes it challenging to control the spread of infectious diseases on a global scale. Instead, the focus is typically on managing and controlling the disease through measures like vaccination, treatment, and public health interventions.
To know more about eradication of diseases here: brainly.com/question/2219623
#SPJ11
When you search in CINAHL, you will find articles that have been tagged with Medical Subject Headings (MeSH). True False
When you search in CINAHL, you will find articles that have been tagged with Medical Subject Headings (MeSH). This statement is true.
The Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL) is an authoritative database for literature on nursing and allied health subjects. This database is used to find and access nursing and allied health articles. CINAHL has an advanced search option, which allows for searching using keywords and Medical Subject Headings (MeSH).
MeSH is a controlled vocabulary used by CINAHL to tag and classify articles. MeSH is made up of terms and descriptors that are used to categorize medical articles according to their subject. MeSH is updated every year to add new terms and descriptors that reflect current research and advancements in medicine. When a user searches for an article using CINAHL, MeSH terms are used to retrieve the relevant articles.
To learn more about Medical visit;
https://brainly.com/question/30958581
#SPJ11
"Define in your own words what autonomic dysreflexia is.
Autonomic dysreflexia, often known as hyperreflexia, is a medical emergency that occurs in individuals who have sustained an injury to the spinal cord above the T6 level.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that affects people who have had spinal cord injuries. It's characterized by a sudden spike in blood pressure that can cause headaches, blurred vision, sweating, and other symptoms. It can be caused by something as simple as a full bladder or bowel movement, or it can be brought on by something more serious like a kidney infection or blood clot. There are a variety of symptoms that can occur as a result of autonomic dysreflexia, including sweating above the level of the injury, headache, flushing of the skin above the level of the injury, a stuffy nose, a slower heart rate, high blood pressure. In rare cases, it may cause convulsions or even loss of consciousness. Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency that should be treated immediately. Treatment involves determining the cause of the episode and taking steps to lower blood pressure, such as emptying the bladder or bowel or using medications.
Learn more about Autonomic dysreflexia: https://brainly.com/question/31077909
#SPJ11
Physical assessment.
1. As a nurse, what are the Introduction procedures including
AIDET for physical assessment
2. Head-to-toe physical assessment
3. What are the Safety checks and procedures you nee
As a nurse, when conducting a physical assessment, the following procedures must be included: Introduction procedures including AIDET for physical assessment: AIDET stands for Acknowledge, Introduce, Duration, Explanation, and Thank you.
As such, it is essential for a nurse to follow these procedures during physical assessments to make patients feel comfortable and at ease. Head-to-toe physical assessment: When conducting a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse needs to assess the patient's skin, eyes, ears, nose, mouth, throat, and neck, among other body parts. This will involve taking the patient's vitals such as blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, temperature, and heart rate.
The nurse also assesses the abdomen, rectum, and genitourinary system. Safety checks and procedures required:
To ensure patient safety during physical assessment, the nurse should always observe the following: Check the bed's height, making sure it is at the right level to avoid falls. Ensure the call bell is within reach of the patient during the assessment process. Make sure the patient is adequately covered to maintain their privacy and dignity. Ensure the examination room is adequately lit to avoid accidents. Make sure the patient's history and allergy lists are up to date.The nurse should always use clean gloves when assessing patients to reduce the risk of infections.
To learn more about physical visit;
https://brainly.com/question/14914605
#SPJ11
Hunter is 88 year old , was admitted to the hospital after developing left-sided facial drooping, slurred speech, and confusion last night during brunch with his family. He was taken to the emergency department where imaging of his brain showed a stroke. Hunters past medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism, BPH, and atrial fibrillation. The doctor told Hunter and his family that the cause of his stroke was likely his atrial fibrillation. Based on this statement by the doctor, which type of stroke do you suspect Hunter suffered: an ischemic or a hemorrhagic stroke? How can atrial fibrillation cause a stroke? What other factors put Hunter at risk for a stroke?
can you please explain briefly
The type of stroke Hunter suffered. A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted. There are two types of stroke: ischemic stroke and hemorrhagic stroke.
An ischemic stroke is the most frequent type, accounting for approximately 80% of all strokes. The other is a hemorrhagic stroke, which is responsible for the remaining 20%. According to the doctor's statement, Hunter's stroke was caused by atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of ischemic stroke. This occurs because atrial fibrillation causes the blood in the atria to pool, allowing blood clots to form. These clots can travel to the brain, resulting in an ischemic stroke. Based on the doctor's statement, it is most likely that Hunter suffered an ischemic stroke.
Hunter has a number of other health issues that put him at risk for a stroke. These include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism, and BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). These are all risk factors for atherosclerosis, which can lead to ischemic strokes. High blood pressure is one of the leading causes of hemorrhagic strokes. Additionally, because Hunter is 88 years old, his age puts him at risk for a stroke.
To learn more about hemorrhagic visit;
https://brainly.com/question/31715552
#SPJ11
Mr. Franklin has an infusion of dopamine to maintain his blood pressure. The infusion started with 800 mg/250 mL D5W at 8 ml/h, and over the past 5 hours it was titrated up to 15 mL/h. He has received 65 mL of the solution. How much dopamine has he received?
The dopamine received by Mr. Franklin through infusion of dopamine is 208 mg.
A medical gadget called an infusion pump helps patients receive fluids like nutrition and drugs in precisely measured volumes.
Using the straightforward equation that 250 ml of D5W contains 800 mg of dopamine, we may find a solution to this issue.
So, [tex]\frac{800}{250}[/tex] mg of dopamine are present in 1 ml.
Therefore, [tex]\frac{800}{250}*65 = 208 mg[/tex] Of dopamine will be present in 65 ml.
After administering 65 ml of the solution, Mr. Franklin received 208 mg of dopamine.
Learn more about dopamine here:
brainly.com/question/31812698
#SPJ12
The question is incomplete, the probable question is:
Mr. Franklin has an infusion of dopamine to maintain his blood pressure. The infusion started with 800 mg/250 mL D5W at 8 ml/h, and over the past 5 hours it was titrated up to 15 mL/h. He has received 65 mL of the solution. How much dopamine has he received?
2080 mL208 mg20.8 mg2080 mgthe nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with partial and full thickness burns over 25% of the total body surface area
The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with partial and full-thickness burns over 25% of the total body surface area.
Burns are injuries to the skin caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, sunlight, or radiation. The depth and extent of the burn injury determine the severity of the burn. In the present scenario, the nurse needs to assess the burn area, the degree of burns, and monitor the client's vital signs and fluid balance.What are partial and full-thickness burns?Partial-thickness burns (also known as second-degree burns) affect the epidermis and the dermis layers of the skin.
The client must be provided with proper pain management, and their nutritional needs must be assessed and addressed. The nurse should provide emotional support to the client and their family, educate them about the care of the burn area, wound healing, and follow-up care. The nurse should also assess the client's psychological needs and provide the necessary counseling and referrals. Burn care is a multidisciplinary approach, and the nurse should work in collaboration with other healthcare providers to provide optimal care to the client.
To know more about admitted visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31069504
#SPJ11
Nurses are taught to, "do no harm." Discuss how medical
professionals who were involved in the Tuskegee study did or did
not adhere to this golden rule?
The medical professionals involved in the Tuskegee study did not adhere to the principle of "do no harm."
The Tuskegee study, conducted between 1932 and 1972, involved withholding treatment from African American men with syphilis to observe the natural progression of the disease.
This study violated several ethical principles, including informed consent, respect for autonomy, and beneficence.
The medical professionals involved failed to provide proper medical care and knowingly allowed harm to be inflicted upon the participants by withholding effective treatment.
By intentionally withholding treatment and concealing information from the participants, the medical professionals violated the fundamental principle of "do no harm." They not only failed to provide the necessary medical intervention but also prolonged the suffering of the participants and allowed the progression of a potentially deadly disease.
This disregard for the well-being and dignity of the individuals involved demonstrates a clear violation of the ethical obligations that medical professionals have to prioritize patient welfare and prevent harm.
To learn more about medical care click here, brainly.com/question/16252794
#SPJ11
Explain the pathophysiology of Meningococcal septicaemia?
(200-300 words)
Meningococcal septicaemia is a condition that affects the human body in a variety of ways. It occurs when bacteria invade the bloodstream and cause a systemic inflammatory response.
Pathophysiology :
It is a serious illness that can lead to death if not diagnosed and treated early enough. This disease affects people of all ages and is more common in children and young adults.
It is caused by bacteria Neisseria meningitidis
(
meningococcus) enters the bloodstream and starts multiplying.
Once it enters the bloodstream, the bacteria triggers a systemic inflammatory response in the body.
The bacteria produces lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on its cell surface that can trigger an inflammatory respons. It bind to LPS-binding protein and then binds to CD14 which present on the surface of monocytes and macrophages.
Once the LPS binds to CD14, it activates a cascade of events that lead to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines like interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). The pro-inflammatory cytokines released cause an increase in vascular permeability which results in leakage of fluid and plasma into the tissues.
The plasma leakage is responsible for the characteristic rash seen in the disease. As it progresses, it can lead to multiple organ failure due to the activation of the coagulation cascade due to the presence of endotoxins in the bloodstream
The formation of microclots in the capillaries of various organs. leading to ischemia and infarction of organs finally leads to the failure of multiple organ systems and can ultimately lead to death.
related content regarding Meningococcal septicaemia :
#SPJ11
A physician orders ampicillin 0.2 g/kg/d IV to be delivered in divided doses q6h. The patient weighs 110 lb. How many mg are needed per dose? How many grams of ampicillin would the patient receive"
A physician orders ampicillin 0.2 g/kg/d IV to be delivered in divided doses q6h. The patient weighs 110 lb. 10000 mg are needed per dose. 40 grams of ampicillin would the patient receive.
To calculate the amount of ampicillin needed per dose, we first convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. Since 1 lb is approximately 0.45 kg (1 lb / 2.2), we divide the weight of 110 lb by 2.2 to get 50 kg.
Next, we multiply the weight (50 kg) by the prescribed dosage of 0.2 g/kg to find the amount of ampicillin needed per dose. This calculation is 50 kg x 0.2 g/kg = 10 g. To convert grams to milligrams, we multiply by 1000, resulting in 10,000 mg per dose.
For the total amount of ampicillin the patient would receive in a day, we consider the dosing frequency of every 6 hours (q6h), which means the patient will receive the medication 4 times in a day.
Therefore, we multiply the dose per administration (10 g) by the number of doses in a day (4 doses), giving us a total of 40 g of ampicillin the patient would receive in a day.
Visit here to learn more about medication:
brainly.com/question/12646017
#SPJ11
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 10 hours after he accidentally ingested an unknown amount of windshield washer fluid. He is confused. He has tachypnea and tachycardia. Physical examination shows hyperemia of both optic discs. Serum studies show an anion gap metabolic acidosis. His serum methanol concentration is 35 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the toxicity in this patient?
A. Covalent attachment of methanol to protein side chains
B. Methanol-induced denaturation of proteins
C. Methanol-induced disruption of cellular membranes
D. Methanol oxidation
E. Methanol reduction
The most likely mechanism of the toxicity in this patient with symptoms of tachypnea and tachycardia is D.methanol oxidation.
What is methanol poisoning?
Methanol is a toxic chemical that can cause poisoning in humans when ingested, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin. Methanol is a byproduct of wood alcohol and is sometimes used as an alternative to ethanol (also known as grain alcohol). Ethanol is used to make alcoholic beverages, while methanol is used to make solvents and antifreeze. Because it is colorless and odorless, methanol is often mistaken for ethanol, and accidental methanol poisoning can occur as a result. Symptoms of methanol poisoning can range from mild to severe, and can even be life-threatening. Tachypnea and tachycardia are symptoms of methanol poisoning. Methanol poisoning causes tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid breathing) as a result of respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Methanol causes acidosis by being converted to formic acid, which is then converted to carbon dioxide and water.
Learn more about tachycardia:
https://brainly.com/question/14939654
#SPJ11
Given the independent nature of healthcare regarding professional identity, hospital teams are often developed – not through an interprofessional team focus – but intraprofessionally, with professional peers from their own discipline making the hiring sessions, who are often people who won’t be a part of their interprofessional team.
True or false?
Given the independent nature of healthcare regarding professional identity, hospital teams are developed with professionals from own discipline making, who won’t be a part of interprofessional team. - False
Hospital teams are increasingly being formed with an interprofessional team focus due to the interconnected nature of healthcare and the acknowledgement of the significance of collaboration and teamwork in providing quality care. Teams of healthcare specialists from various specialities collaborate to provide patients with thorough and well-coordinated care. The major objective of interprofessional team development is to create teams comprising individuals from various professions, including doctors, nurses, chemists, social workers, and allied health professionals.
These teams' makeup represents the range of knowledge and viewpoints needed for efficient patient care. It implies that hospital teams are created intraprofessionally, by members of the same profession working together to establish teams. This, however, runs counter to current thinking and trend in healthcare, which promotes interprofessional collaboration and teamwork to improve patient outcomes and healthcare delivery.
Read more about healthcare on:
https://brainly.com/question/19305870
#SPJ4
4. Which values determine blood pressure and pulse pressure? 5- Briefly describe the events that take place during ventricular filling. 17- What is the difference between the innate and the adaptative immune response? 18- What factors determine ABO and Rh types?
Blood pressure and pulse pressure are determined by systolic and diastolic values. Ventricular filling occurs during diastole. The innate immune response is rapid and non-specific, while the adaptive response is specific and develops over time. ABO and Rh types are determined by specific antigens inherited from parents.
Blood Pressure and Pulse Pressure:Blood Pressure:
Blood pressure is determined by two values: systolic pressure and diastolic pressure. Systolic pressure is the higher value and represents the pressure exerted on the arterial walls when the heart contracts during each heartbeat. Diastolic pressure is the lower value and represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats.
Pulse Pressure:
Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. It reflects the force generated by the heart during systole and the elasticity of the arterial walls.
Events during Ventricular Filling:Ventricular filling occurs during diastole, the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
Initially, the atria contract (atrial systole), which completes the filling of the ventricles with blood.
The atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid and mitral valves) open, allowing blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles.
As the ventricles expand, blood passively flows from the atria into the ventricles due to the pressure difference.
Towards the end of ventricular filling, the atria relax (atrial diastole), and the ventricles are filled to their maximum capacity.
Difference between Innate and Adaptive Immune Response:Innate Immune Response:
The innate immune response is the first line of defense against pathogens and is present from birth. It provides a rapid, non-specific response to a wide range of pathogens. The key features of the innate immune response include physical barriers (e.g., skin), inflammation, phagocytosis by cells like macrophages, and natural killer (NK) cells.
Adaptive Immune Response:
The adaptive immune response is a specific response to particular pathogens and develops over time. It involves the activation of lymphocytes (B and T cells) that recognize and target specific antigens. The adaptive immune response exhibits memory, allowing the body to mount a stronger and faster response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.
Factors determining ABO and Rh types:ABO Blood Type:
The ABO blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens (A and B antigens) on the surface of red blood cells. The ABO blood type is inherited from parents, with possible combinations of A, B, AB, or O blood types.
Rh Factor:
The Rh factor refers to a specific antigen (D antigen) present on the surface of red blood cells. An individual is Rh positive (Rh+) if they have the Rh antigen and Rh negative (Rh-) if they lack the antigen. The Rh factor is also inherited, and it is either present or absent based on the combination of alleles inherited from parents.
To learn more about Blood Pressure visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12977978
#SPJ11
All the following characteristics contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors, EXCEPT which one? a. The threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarization b. Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal c. Presence or absence of a tissue capsule d. Physical characteristics of capsule enclosing the receptor
The characteristic that does not contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors is the presence or absence of a tissue capsule. Adaptation is the procedure through which a receptor's sensitivity declines over time in reaction to a continuous stimulus that persists at the same strength.
Below are the characteristics that contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors:
1. The threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarization
2. Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal
3. Physical characteristics of capsule enclosing the receptor.
The threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarizationThe threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarization is one of the characteristics that contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors.
A receptor threshold is a minimum amount of energy required for a particular type of stimulus to elicit a response. Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal
Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal is also another characteristic that contributes to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors. This implies that the elasticity of the tissue decreases with continuous pressure; this may cause a decrease in receptor membrane potential.
Physical characteristics of the capsule enclosing the receptor. Physical characteristics of the capsule enclosing the receptor are another characteristic that contributes to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors. The capsule surrounding the receptor is a crucial element in this mechanism. Capsules that are denser can decrease the receptor membrane's ability to distort. This decreases the membrane's potential to depolarize and sends nerve signals to the brain.
To learn more about Adaptation visit;
https://brainly.com/question/12534888
#SPJ11
To prepare for the live classroom session and your written submission, use your chapter readings and course materials.
The focus for this live classroom is a discussion about diet therapy for a 58 year old woman who experienced her first MI and is being discharged home. She currently works full time and is divorced. She lives in an apartment and has no family in the surrounding community.
To prepare for the live classroom session and your written submission, use your chapter readings, review of videos, course materials, research, and written assignments.
Be prepared to discuss the following:
What should be the focus for her nutritional history and assessment?
What dietary recommendations should be made?
What obstacles to staying on the diet recommended might this woman encounter?
What special considerations should you, as a nurse, be aware of?
To prepare for the classroom session, focus on dietary recommendations for a 58-year-old woman who had an MI and lives alone. Consider the obstacles and special considerations for nurses.
Nutritional history and assessment should focus on the patient's dietary preferences, food habits, and physical activity level. It's essential to consider any medical conditions, medications, and personal life circumstances such as her job, living situation, and social support system. Based on her needs, dietary recommendations could include reducing sodium, saturated fat, and added sugars, while increasing fiber, fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
Obstacles for staying on the recommended diet might include financial constraints, accessibility to healthy food options, and a lack of time. Nurses should be aware of the patient's health literacy, cultural background, and any cognitive or physical limitations that may impact her adherence to the diet. Additionally, it's important to involve the patient in developing a personalized plan that addresses her needs, preferences, and barriers to success.
Learn more about health literacy here:
https://brainly.com/question/30389516
#SPJ11
How many grams of dextrose are in the fluid for the label shown? How many minutes will it take to infuse at 2 mL/min? How many drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/
Volume: 500 mL, Dextrose: 5%.How many drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL?
Answer:Grams of dextrose in the fluid:First, we need to find out the amount of dextrose in grams.5% of 500 mL = (5/100) × 500 mL= 25 gSo, there are 25 grams of dextrose in the fluid for the label shown.How many minutes will it take to infuse at 2 mL/min?Time taken = Volume ÷ Flow rate= 500 mL ÷ 2 mL/min= 250 minutesSo, it will take 250 minutes to infuse the given fluid at 2 mL/min.
We need to use the formula,Flow rate = (Volume ÷ Time) × Drop factor= (500 mL ÷ 60 min) × 15 gtt/mL= 125 gtt/minSo, 125 drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL.Explanation:We are given the volume and concentration of dextrose. We calculated the amount of dextrose in grams using concentration and volume.Next, we calculated the time taken to infuse the fluid at a given flow rate.Using the flow rate formula and drop factor, we determined the drops per minute to be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. The detailed solution is given above.
To know more about dextrose visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30705927
#SPJ11