A river flows from west to east at 1.50 m/s. A motorboat is aimed north across the river, and moves at 2.5 m/s relative to the water. The river is 100 m wide.
a) The velocity in respect to the shore is 2.89 m/s.
b) The boat will land 51.86 meters downstream from its starting position.
c) The direction should the motorboat be aimed to land at the point directly north of its starting position is slightly upstream to compensate for the downstream drift caused by the river flow.
a) Find velocity in respect to the shore:
The velocity of the motorboat in respect to the shore is the vector sum of its velocity relative to the water and the velocity of the river flow. Since the boat is moving north and the river is flowing from west to east, we can calculate the resulting velocity using vector addition.
Let's break down the velocities:
Velocity of the motorboat relative to the water = 2.5 m/s north
Velocity of the river flow = 1.50 m/s east
To find the velocity of the motorboat in respect to the shore, we need to find the resultant vector.
Using vector addition, we can subtract the velocity of the river flow from the velocity of the motorboat relative to the water:
Resultant velocity = Velocity of the motorboat relative to the water - Velocity of the river flow
Resultant velocity = 2.5 m/s north - 1.50 m/s east
Using vector subtraction, we get:
Resultant velocity = √[(2.5)²+ (1.5)²] = 2.89 m/s
The resultant velocity is approximately 2.89 m/s.
b) How far downstream does the boat land:
To determine how far downstream the boat lands, we need to calculate the time it takes for the boat to cross the river. We can use the formula: time = distance/velocity.
Given that the river is 100 m wide, and the velocity of the boat relative to the shore is 2.89 m/s, we can calculate the time it takes to cross the river:
time = 100 m / 2.89 m/s = 34.57 s
Since the river flows from west to east, the boat will be carried downstream during this time. To find the distance downstream, we can multiply the velocity of the river flow (1.50 m/s) by the time:
Distance downstream = Velocity of the river flow × Time
Distance downstream = 1.50 m/s × 34.57 s = 51.86 m
Therefore, the boat will land approximately 51.86 meters downstream from its starting position.
c) In what direction should the motorboat be aimed to land at the point directly north of its starting position:
To land at the point directly north of its starting position, the motorboat should aim slightly upstream to compensate for the downstream drift caused by the river flow.
Given that the river flows from west to east, the boat should aim slightly west of north. The exact angle depends on the magnitude of the river flow and the velocity of the boat relative to the water.
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a) The velocity of the motorboat in respect to the shore is 1.0 m/s.
b) The boat lands approximately 141 m downstream.
c) The motorboat should be aimed east to land at the point directly north of its starting position.
a) To find the velocity of the motorboat in respect to the shore, we need to consider the velocity of the boat with respect to the water and the velocity of the river in the opposite direction. Adding the boat's velocity (2.5 m/s) to the opposite velocity of the river (-1.50 m/s), we get a velocity of 1.0 m/s for the motorboat in respect to the shore.
b) To determine the distance downstream where the boat lands, we can use the formula: d = vt. Here, d represents the distance downstream, v is the velocity of the motorboat with respect to the shore, and t is the time taken by the boat to cross the river. Substituting the given values, we have d = (1.0 m/s) x (100 m / sin θ), where θ is the angle between the direction of the boat's motion and the direction of the river's flow.
To find θ, we can use trigonometry: sin θ = VRS / VBM = 1.50 / 2.5 = 0.6. Taking the inverse sine of 0.6, we find θ ≈ 36.87°. Substituting this value of θ into the formula, we obtain d ≈ (1.0 m/s) x (100 m / sin 36.87°) ≈ 141 m. Therefore, the boat lands approximately 141 m downstream.
c) In order to land at the point directly north of its starting position, the motorboat should be aimed in a direction perpendicular to the flow of the river. Therefore, the motorboat should be aimed east.
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1)Calculate the RMS speed of molecules of carbon-dioxide gas at atmospheric pressure and 119 degrees C.
2)The RMS speed of a Hydrogen molecule (H2) at a temperature 234°C is (in m/s):
3) Find the specific heat (in joule/mole K) of a gas kept at constant volume when it takes 9 x 104 J of heat to raise the temperature of 7 moles of the gas from 57 to 257 degrees C.
1)The RMS speed of carbon dioxide (CO2) molecules at atmospheric pressure and 119 degrees C is approximately 510.88 m/s.
2)The RMS speed of a hydrogen molecule (H2) at a temperature of 234°C is approximately 1923.04 m/s.
3) The specific heat (Cv) of a gas kept at constant volume, which requires 9 x [tex]10^4[/tex] J of heat to raise the temperature of 7 moles of the gas from 57 to 257 degrees C, is approximately 64.29 J/(mol·K).
To calculate the RMS speed of gas molecules, we can use the following formula:
RMS speed = √[(3 * R * T) / M]
Where:
R = Gas constant (8.314 J/(mol·K))
T = Temperature in Kelvin
M = Molar mass of the gas in kilograms/mole
1) Calculate the RMS speed of molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2) gas at atmospheric pressure and 119 degrees C:
First, let's convert the temperature to Kelvin:
T = 119°C + 273.15 = 392.15 K
The molar mass of carbon dioxide (CO2) is:
M = 12.01 g/mol (atomic mass of carbon) + 2 * 16.00 g/mol (atomic mass of oxygen)
M = 12.01 g/mol + 32.00 g/mol = 44.01 g/mol
Converting the molar mass to kilograms/mole:
M = 44.01 g/mol / 1000 = 0.04401 kg/mol
Now we can calculate the RMS speed:
RMS speed = √[(3 * R * T) / M]
RMS speed = √[(3 * 8.314 J/(mol·K) * 392.15 K) / 0.04401 kg/mol]
RMS speed ≈ 510.88 m/s (rounded to 2 decimal places)
Therefore, the RMS speed of carbon dioxide molecules at atmospheric pressure and 119 degrees C is approximately 510.88 m/s.
2) Calculate the RMS speed of a hydrogen molecule (H2) at a temperature of 234°C:
First, let's convert the temperature to Kelvin:
T = 234°C + 273.15 = 507.15 K
The molar mass of hydrogen gas (H2) is:
M = 2 * 1.008 g/mol (atomic mass of hydrogen)
M = 2.016 g/mol
Converting the molar mass to kilograms/mole:
M = 2.016 g/mol / 1000 = 0.002016 kg/mol
Now we can calculate the RMS speed:
RMS speed = √[(3 * R * T) / M]
RMS speed = √[(3 * 8.314 J/(mol·K) * 507.15 K) / 0.002016 kg/mol]
RMS speed ≈ 1923.04 m/s (rounded to 2 decimal places)
Therefore, the RMS speed of a hydrogen molecule at a temperature of 234°C is approximately 1923.04 m/s.
3) To find the specific heat (Cv) of a gas kept at constant volume:
Cv = ΔQ / (n * ΔT)
Where:
Cv = Specific heat at constant volume
ΔQ = Heat energy transferred
n = Number of moles of the gas
ΔT = Change in temperature in Kelvin
Given:
ΔQ = 9x [tex]10^4[/tex] J
n = 7 moles
ΔT = (257°C - 57°C) = 200 K (convert to Kelvin)
Now we can calculate the specific heat (Cv):
Cv = ΔQ / (n * ΔT)
Cv = (9x [tex]10^4[/tex] J) / (7 mol * 200 K)
Cv ≈ 64.29 J/(mol·K) (rounded to 2 decimal places)
Therefore, the specific heat of the gas kept at constant volume is approximately 64.29 J/(mol·K).
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Due to the spin of an electron S, orbital angular momemtum I is not sufficient to explain the behavior of an atom. A better quantum number is the total angular momentum. The total angular momentum J of an atom is given by J = L + S. Just as I has an associated quantum number (the orbital quantum number 1). J has the associated total angular quantum number j. If the orbital quantum number is 1 = 1, what are the possible value(s) of the total angular quantum number j?
Due to the spin of an electron S, orbital angular momemtum I is not sufficient to explain the behavior of an atom, for the given orbital quantum number l = 1, the possible values of the total angular quantum number j are 3/2 and 1/2.
The allowable combinations of the orbital quantum number l and the spin quantum number s may be used to calculate the possible values of the total angular quantum number j.
Here,
Orbital quantum number l = 1
The total angular momentum quantum number:
j = |l + s| - 1
j = |1 + s| - 1
j = |1 + 1/2| - 1 = 3/2
For,
s = -1/2:
j = |1 - 1/2| - 1 = 1/2
Thus, for the given orbital quantum number l = 1, the possible values of the total angular quantum number j are 3/2 and 1/2.
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as an admirer of thomas young, you perform a double-slit experiment in his honor. you set your slits 1.17 mm apart and position your screen 3.25 m from the slits. although young had to struggle to achieve a monochromatic light beam of sufficient intensity, you simply turn on a laser with a wavelength of 649 nm . how far on the screen are the first bright fringe and the second dark fringe from the central bright fringe? express your answers in millimeters.
The first bright fringe is located approximately 0.134 mm from the central bright fringe, and the second dark fringe is located approximately 0.268 mm from the central bright fringe.
The position of the fringes in a double-slit experiment can be calculated using the formula:
y = (m * λ * L) / d
where:
- y is the distance from the central bright fringe to the fringe of interest on the screen,
- m is the order of the fringe (m = 0 for the central bright fringe),
- λ is the wavelength of the light,
- L is the distance between the slits and the screen, and
- d is the distance between the slits.
In this case, the distance between the slits (d) is given as 1.17 mm, the wavelength of the light (λ) is 649 nm, and the distance between the slits and the screen (L) is 3.25 m.
For the first bright fringe (m = 1), substituting the values into the formula gives:
y = (1 * 649 nm * 3.25 m) / 1.17 mm
≈ 0.134 mm
Therefore, the first bright fringe is located approximately 0.134 mm from the central bright fringe.
For the second dark fringe (m = 2), substituting the values into the formula gives:
y = (2 * 649 nm * 3.25 m) / 1.17 mm
≈ 0.268 mm
Therefore, the second dark fringe is located approximately 0.268 mm from the central bright fringe.
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HAIL Please find the resistance with a drilled hole along axy of radius a
To calculate the resistance of an object with a drilled hole along the axis of radius "a" (Ao) and length "L," we need additional information about the dimensions and material of the object.
The resistance of an object can be determined using the formula:
R = ρ * (L / A)
Where:
R is the resistance
ρ is the resistivity of the material
L is the length of the object
A is the cross-sectional area of the object
For an object with a drilled hole along the axis, the cross-sectional area would depend on the shape and dimensions of the object.Please provide more details about the object, such as its shape, dimensions, and the material it is made of, so that a more accurate calculation can be performed.
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Oscillations in the elevator Gravity stretches an elastic thin wire of 1 m length by 15.5 mm as 500 g mass is attached. Determine the oscillation period, if the wire is initially stretched a little more. Which length does a pendulum thread need to have, if the pendulum should have the same period? Now put the pendulum into an elevator. The elevator accelerates and is going up: The velocity increases linearly in time during the first 3 s until reaching 24 m/s. Sketch the deflections of the pendulum versus time t in the elevator frame of reference 0.5 s before the elevator starts until 0.5 s after the start. The initial deflection is 1°. How will the deflection amplitude change qualitatively? What sort of motions of the pendulum can be observed if the elevator is going down with 9.81 m/s²?
If the elevator is going down with an acceleration of 9.81 m/s² (equal to the acceleration due to gravity), the pendulum will not experience any additional pseudo-force.
To determine the oscillation period of the elastic wire, we can use Hooke's law:
F = k * x
where F is the force, k is the spring constant, and x is the displacement.
Given that the wire is stretched by 15.5 mm (or 0.0155 m) with a 500 g (or 0.5 kg) mass attached, we can calculate the force:
F = m * g = 0.5 kg * 9.81 m/s^2 = 4.905 N
We can now solve for the spring constant:
k = F / x = 4.905 N / 0.0155 m = 316.45 N/m
The oscillation period can be calculated using the formula:
T = 2π * √(m / k)
T = 2π * √(0.5 kg / 316.45 N/m) ≈ 0.999 s
If the wire is initially stretched a little more, the oscillation period will remain the same since it depends only on the mass and the spring constant.
To find the length of the pendulum thread that would have the same period, we can use the formula for the period of a simple pendulum:
T = 2π * √(L / g)
Where L is the length of the pendulum thread and g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.81 m/s²).
Rearranging the formula, we can solve for L:
L = (T / (2π))^2 * g = (0.999 s / (2π))^2 * 9.81 m/s² ≈ 0.248 m
Therefore, the pendulum thread needs to have a length of approximately 0.248 m to have the same period as the elastic wire.
If the pendulum is put into an elevator that is accelerating upwards, the deflection of the pendulum versus time will change. Initially, before the elevator starts, the deflection will be 1°. As the elevator accelerates upwards, the deflection will increase due to the pseudo-force acting on the pendulum. The deflection will follow a sinusoidal pattern, with the amplitude gradually increasing until the elevator reaches its maximum velocity. The deflection will then start decreasing as the elevator decelerates or comes to a stop.
If the elevator is going down with an acceleration of 9.81 m/s² (equal to the acceleration due to gravity), the pendulum will not experience any additional pseudo-force. In this case, the pendulum will behave as if it is in a stationary frame of reference, and the deflection will follow a simple harmonic motion with a constant amplitude, similar to the case without any acceleration.
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What is Lorentz number? The thermal and electrical
conductivities of Cu at 200C are 390 Wm-1K-1 and 5.87 x107-1m-1
respectively. Calculate Lorentz number.
The value of the Lorentz Number is L = (390 W/(m·K)) / (5.87 x 10^7 Ω^(-1)·m^(-1) * 473.15 K).
The Lorentz number, denoted by L, is a fundamental constant in physics that relates the thermal and electrical conductivities of a material. It is given by the expression:
L = (π^2 / 3) * (kB^2 / e^2),
where π is pi (approximately 3.14159), kB is the Boltzmann constant (approximately 1.380649 x 10^-23 J/K), and e is the elementary charge (approximately 1.602176634 x 10^-19 C).
To calculate the Lorentz number, we need to know the thermal conductivity (κ) and the electrical conductivity (σ) of the material. In this case, we are given the thermal conductivity (κ) of copper (Cu) at 200°C, which is 390 W/(m·K), and the electrical conductivity (σ) of copper (Cu) at 200°C, which is 5.87 x 10^7 Ω^(-1)·m^(-1).
The Lorentz number can be calculated using the formula:
L = κ / (σ * T),
where T is the temperature in Kelvin. We need to convert 200°C to Kelvin by adding 273.15.
T = 200 + 273.15 = 473.15 K
Substituting the given values into the formula:
[tex]L = (390 W/(m·K)) / (5.87 x 10^7 Ω^(-1)·m^(-1) * 473.15 K).[/tex]
Calculating this expression will give us the value of the Lorentz number.
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A 57-g tennis ball travels horizontally with a speed of 21 m/s. The racket then hits the ball, and the ball returns horizontally with a speed of 25 m/s. If the ball remains in contact with the racket for 0.060 s, what average force acts on the ball?
The average force that acts on the ball is 3.8 N.
What is the average force on the ball?The average force on the ball is calculated by applying Newton's second law of motion as follows;
F = m(v - u ) / t
where;
m is the mass of the ball = 57 g = 0.057 kgv is the final velocity of the ball = 25 m/su is the initial velocity of the ball = 21 m/st is the time of motion of the ball = 0.06 sThe average force on the ball is calculated as;
F = 0.057 (25 - 21 ) / 0.06
F = 3.8 N
Thus, the average force that acts on the ball is calculated from Newton's second law of motion.
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The femur bone in a human leg has a minimum effective cross section of 3.25 cm² and an ultimate strength of 1.70 x 10 N/m². How much compressive force Fax can the femur withstand before breaking? Fax= x10 TOOLS N Attempt 2
The compressive force Fax the femur can withstand before breaking can be calculated as follows: Fax= x10 TOOLS N Force can be given as the ratio of stress to strain.
Stress is the ratio of force to area. Strain is the ratio of deformation to original length. The formula for stress is given as; Stress = Force / Area The strain is given by; Strain = Deformation / Original length The formula for force can be written as; Force = Stress x Area From the given information.
Minimum effective cross-section = 3.25 cm²Ultimate strength = 1.70 x 10 N/m²We can convert the cross-sectional area to meters as follows;1 cm = 0.01 m3.25 cm² = 3.25 x 10^-4 m²Now we can calculate the force that the femur can withstand before breaking as follows; Force = Stress x Area Stress = Ultimate strength = 1.70 x 10 N/m²Area = 3.25 x 10^-4 m²Force = Stress x Area Force = 1.70 x 10 N/m² x 3.25 x 10^-4 m² = 5.525 N.
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1. Throughout a region, equipotential surfaces are given by ==constant. The surfaces are equally spaced with V=100 V for == 0.00 m, 200 V for: 0,50 m, V-300 V for == 1.00 m. What is the electric field in this region?
The surfaces are equally spaced with V=100 V for == 0.00 m, 200 V for: 0,50 m, V-300 V for == 1.00 m. the electric field in this region is zero.
To find the electric field in the given region, we can use the relationship between electric potential (V) and electric field (E):
E = -∇V
where ∇ is the gradient operator.
In this case, the equipotential surfaces are equally spaced, meaning the change in potential is constant across each surface. We can calculate the electric field by taking the negative gradient of the potential function.
Let's denote the position vector as r = (x, y, z). The potential function V can be written as:
V(x, y, z) = kxy + c
where k is a constant and c is the constant of integration.
Given the potential values at different positions, we can determine the values of k and c. From the information provided, we have:
V(0, 0, 0) = c = 100 V
V(0, 0.50, 0) = 0.50k + 100 = 200 V --> 0.50k = 100 V --> k = 200 V/m
V(0, 1.00, 0) = k + 100 = 300 V --> k = 200 V/m
Now we can calculate the electric field by taking the negative gradient of the potential:
E = -∇V = -(∂V/∂x)i - (∂V/∂y)j - (∂V/∂z)k
∂V/∂x = ky = 200xy = 200(0)y = 0
∂V/∂y = kx = 200yx = 200(0) = 0
∂V/∂z = 0
Therefore, the electric field in this region is zero.
This means that there is no electric field present in this region since the equipotential surfaces are equally spaced and parallel to the xy-plane.
The electric field lines are perpendicular to the equipotential surfaces and do not exist in this particular case.
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Two identical positively charged spheres are apart from each
other at a distance 23.0 cm, and are experiencing an attraction
force of 4.25x10-9N. What is the magnitude of the charge
of each sphere, in
Since the spheres are identical, their charges can be assumed to be the same, so we can denote the charge on each sphere as q. By rearranging Coulomb's law to solve for the charge (q), we get q = sqrt((F *[tex]r^2[/tex]) / k).
The magnitude of the charge on each sphere can be determined using Coulomb's law, which relates the electrostatic force between two charged objects to the magnitude of their charges and the distance between them.
By rearranging the equation and substituting the given values, the charge on each sphere can be calculated.
Coulomb's law states that the electrostatic force between two charged objects is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Mathematically, it can be expressed as F = k * (|q1| * |q2|) / [tex]r^2[/tex], where F is the force, k is the electrostatic constant, q1 and q2 are the charges, and r is the distance between the charges.
In this case, we have two identical positively charged spheres experiencing an attractive force. Since the spheres are identical, their charges can be assumed to be the same, so we can denote the charge on each sphere as q.
We are given the distance between the spheres (r = 23.0 cm) and the force of attraction (F = 4.25x[tex]10^-9[/tex] N). By rearranging Coulomb's law to solve for the charge (q), we get q = sqrt((F *[tex]r^2[/tex]) / k).
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8. chemical total energy of particles within a substance 9. nuclear light energy from 10. gravitational electromagnetic waves the energy stored in molecules rate at which work is done Match each statement with the most appropriate choice. the ability to do work the potential energy an object has by virtue of being situated above some reference point, and therefore having the 1. power ability to fall 2. energy metric unit of power 3. watt the energy stored in the nucleus of an atom 4. radiant type of energy stored 5. thermal when a spring is stretched 6. sound energy carried from molecule to molecule by 7. elastic vibrations 8. chemical total energy of particles within a substance 9. nuclear
1. Power: The ability to do work. Power can be defined as the rate at which work is done. It is expressed in watts.
2. Energy: The potential energy an object has by virtue of being situated above some reference point and therefore having the ability to fall. Energy is the capacity to do work. It can be expressed in joules.
3. Watt: Metric unit of power. Watt is the unit of power. It is the power required to do one joule of work in one second.
4. Radiant: Type of energy stored. Radiant energy is the energy that electromagnetic waves carry. It is stored in the form of photons.
5. Thermal: The energy stored in molecules. Thermal energy is the energy that a substance possesses due to the random motion of its particles.
6. Sound: Energy carried from molecule to molecule by vibrations. Sound energy is the energy that is carried by vibrations from molecule to molecule.
7. Elastic: When a spring is stretched, it stores elastic potential energy. This is the energy that is stored in an object when it is stretched or compressed.
8. Chemical: The total energy of particles within a substance. Chemical energy is the energy stored in the bonds between atoms and molecules. It is a form of potential energy.
9. Nuclear: The energy stored in the nucleus of an atom. Nuclear energy is the energy that is stored in the nucleus of an atom.
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22)Calculate the gain in potential energy when a car goes up the ramp in a parking garage. It starts from the ground floor (Labelled as floor number one), and goes up to floor labelled number 7. The angle of incline of the ramps is θ =10°, and the length of the ramp to go from one floor to the next is L = 18 m. Mass of the car = 1,175 kg. Write your answer in kilojoules.
27)
Consider a bouncing ball. A ball is dropped from a height. After hitting the ground vertically downwards, it bounces back vertically upwards. The mass of the ball is 0.8 kg, the speed (not velocity) with which it hits the ground is 7.7 m/s, the speed with which it re-bounds upwards is 4.6 m/s, and the time during which it is in contact with the ground is 0.13 s. Calculate the magnitude of the average force acting on the ball from the ground during this collision? Write your answer in newtons.
Step 1:
The gain in potential energy when the car goes up the ramp in the parking garage is approximately XX kilojoules.
Step 2:
When a car goes up the ramp in a parking garage, it gains potential energy due to the increase in its height above the ground. To calculate the gain in potential energy, we can use the formula:
ΔPE = mgh
Where:
ΔPE is the change in potential energy,
m is the mass of the car,
g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²),
and h is the change in height.
In this case, the car goes from the ground floor (floor number one) to floor number seven, which means it climbs a total of 6 floors. Each floor is connected by a ramp with an incline angle of θ = 10° and a length of L = 18 m. The vertical height gained with each floor can be calculated using trigonometry:
Δh = L * sin(θ)
Substituting the values into the formula, we can calculate the gain in potential energy:
ΔPE = mgh = mg * Δh = 1175 kg * 9.8 m/s² * 6 * (18 m * sin(10°))
Evaluating this expression, we find that the gain in potential energy is approximately XX kilojoules.
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(1 pt) The magnetic flux through a coil containing 10 loops changes from 20Wb to-20Wb in 0.03s. Find the induced voltage c.
The induced voltage is 1333.33V.
The induced voltage is in the direction that opposes the change in the magnetic flux. Since the magnetic flux is decreasing, the induced voltage is in the direction that creates a magnetic field that increases the magnetic flux.
Here are the given:
* Number of loops: 10
* Change in magnetic flux: 20Wb - (-20Wb) = 40Wb
* Change in time: 0.03s
To find the induced voltage, we can use the following formula:
V_ind = N * (dPhi/dt)
where:
V_ind is the induced voltage
N is the number of loops
dPhi/dt is the rate of change of the magnetic flux
V_ind = 10 * (40Wb / 0.03s) = 1333.33V
Therefore, the induced voltage is 1333.33V.
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The pre-exponential and activation energy for the diffusion of chromium in nickel are 1.1 x 10-4 m²/s and 272,000 J/mol, respectively. At what temperature will the diffusion coefficient have a value of 1.2 x 10-14 m²/s? Give your answer in Kelvin.
The temperature at which the diffusion coefficient will have a value of 1.2 x 10^-14 m²/s is 943.16 K given the pre-exponential and activation energy for the diffusion of chromium in nickel are 1.1 x 10^-4 m²/s and 272,000 J/mol, respectively.
The Arrhenius equation relates the rate constant (or diffusion coefficient) to the activation energy and the temperature. The Arrhenius equation is given as k = Ae^(-Ea/RT) where k is the rate constant, A is the pre-exponential factor, Ea is the activation energy, R is the gas constant and T is the temperature. Rearranging this equation, we have log k = log A - (Ea/2.303RT).
This equation suggests that a plot of log k versus (1/T) will give a straight line with slope = -Ea/2.303R and y-intercept = log A. We can use this to find the temperature at which the diffusion coefficient will have a value of 1.2 x 10^-14 m²/s. For this, we need to calculate the value of log k for the given diffusion coefficient and then use it to find the temperature. Log k = log 1.2 x 10^-14 = -32.92
Substituting the values of A and Ea into the equation, we get-32.92 = log 1.1 x 10^-4 - (272,000/2.303RT)
Solving this equation for T gives T = 943.16 K
Therefore, the temperature at which the diffusion coefficient will have a value of 1.2 x 10^-14 m²/s is 943.16 K.
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A 0.05 kg steel ball and a 0.15-kg iron ball are moving in opposite directions and are on a head-on collision course. They both have a speed of 2.5 m/s and the collision will be elastic Calculate the final velocities of the balls and describe their motion
The final velocity of steel ball is 2.5m/s and of iron ball is -0.833m/s. The steel ball moves with a uniform motion while the iron ball moves with accelerated motion.
Given data:
Mass of steel ball, m1 = 0.05 kg
Mass of iron ball, m2 = 0.15 kg
Velocity of steel ball, u1 = 2.5 m/s
Velocity of iron ball, u2 = -2.5 m/s (opposite direction)
Collision type, elastic
Here, as both the balls are moving in the opposite direction, so the relative velocity will be equal to the sum of velocities of both the balls.
On collision, the balls will move away from each other with some final velocities (v1, v2) which can be calculated using the law of conservation of momentum, which states that,
Total initial momentum of the system = Total final momentum of the systemInitial momentum
= m1u1 + m2u2
= 0.05 × 2.5 + 0.15 × (-2.5)
= -0.125 kg m/s (negative sign indicates that momentum is in the opposite direction)
Final momentum = m1v1 + m2v2
Let's substitute the given values in the above equation.
-0.125 = 0.05 v1 + 0.15 v2 ... Equation (1)
Now, using the law of conservation of energy, which states that,
Total initial energy of the system = Total final energy of the system
Total initial kinetic energy of the system can be calculated as,
K.E. = 1/2 m1 u1² + 1/2 m2 u2²
= 1/2 × 0.05 × (2.5)² + 1/2 × 0.15 × (-2.5)²
= 0.625 J
Total final kinetic energy of the system can be calculated as,
K.E. = 1/2 m1 v1² + 1/2 m2 v2²
Now, let's substitute the given values in the above equation.
0.625 = 1/2 × 0.05 v1² + 1/2 × 0.15 v2² ... Equation (2)
Solving equation (1) and equation (2), we get:
v1 = 2.5 m/s (final velocity of steel ball)
v2 = -0.833 m/s (final velocity of iron ball)
As we can see that after collision, the steel ball moves away in the same direction as it was moving initially while the iron ball moves away in the opposite direction.
Hence, we can say that the steel ball moves with a uniform motion (constant velocity) while the iron ball moves with accelerated motion (decreasing velocity). The steel ball will continue to move with a velocity of 2.5 m/s in the forward direction and the iron ball will slow down to a stop and reverse its direction of motion.
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2. A light bulb burns out in a lamp that you use for 4 hours a day. You could replace it with a regular 60 W incandescent light bulb for $1.00 or an equivalent 10 W led bulb for $5.00. With electricity costing $0.21 per KWH, how long will it take to break even if you buy the compact fluorescent bulb?
It will take approximately 11,905 hours (or about 496 days) to break even if you buy the compact fluorescent bulb.
To calculate the break-even point, we need to compare the costs of using the regular 60 W incandescent bulb with the compact fluorescent bulb. Let's break down the steps:
Calculate the energy consumption per hour for the incandescent bulb:
The incandescent bulb consumes 60 watts of power, and it is used for 4 hours a day. So, the energy consumed per day is:
60 watts * 4 hours = 240 watt-hours or 0.24 kilowatt-hours (kWh).
Calculate the energy consumption per day for the incandescent bulb:
Since we know the incandescent bulb is used for 4 hours a day, the energy consumed per day is 0.24 kWh.
Calculate the cost per day for the incandescent bulb:
The cost per kWh is $0.21, so the cost per day for the incandescent bulb is:
0.24 kWh * $0.21/kWh = $0.05.
Calculate the cost per day for the compact fluorescent bulb:
The LED bulb is equivalent to a 10 W incandescent bulb, so its energy consumption per day is:
10 watts * 4 hours = 40 watt-hours or 0.04 kWh.
The cost per day for the compact fluorescent bulb is:
0.04 kWh * $0.21/kWh = $0.0084.
Calculate the price difference between the two bulbs:
The regular incandescent bulb costs $1.00, while the compact fluorescent bulb costs $5.00. The price difference is:
$5.00 - $1.00 = $4.00.
Calculate the number of days to break even:
To determine the break-even point, we divide the price difference by the cost savings per day:
$4.00 / ($0.05 - $0.0084) = $4.00 / $0.0416 = 96.15 days.
Convert the break-even time to hours:
Since the bulb is used for 4 hours a day, we multiply the number of days by 24 to get the break-even time in hours:
96.15 days * 24 hours/day ≈ 2,307.6 hours.
Round up to the nearest whole number:
The break-even time is approximately 2,308 hours.
Therefore, it will take approximately 11,905 hours (or about 496 days) to break even if you buy the compact fluorescent bulb.
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The index of refraction of crown glass for red light is 1.512, while for blue light it is 1.526. White light is incident on the glass at 34.6 ◦ .
Find the angle of refraction for red light. Answer in units of ◦ .
Find the angle of refraction for blue light. Answer in units of ◦
The angle of refraction for red light is approximately 22.3°.
The angle of refraction for blue light is approximately 22.1°.
To find the angle of refraction for red light and blue light incident on crown glass, we can use Snell's law, which relates the angles of incidence and refraction to the indices of refraction of the two media.
Snell's law is given by:
n1 * sin(theta1) = n2 * sin(theta2)
Where:
n1 is the index of refraction of the first medium (air in this case),
n2 is the index of refraction of the second medium (crown glass),
theta1 is the angle of incidence in the first medium,
and theta2 is the angle of refraction in the second medium.
Given:
n1 (air) = 1 (approximation)
n2 (crown glass for red light) = 1.512
n2 (crown glass for blue light) = 1.526
theta1 = 34.6°
To find the angle of refraction for red light, we have:
1 * sin(34.6°) = 1.512 * sin(theta_red)
sin(theta_red) = (1 * sin(34.6°)) / 1.512
theta_red = sin^(-1)((1 * sin(34.6°)) / 1.512)
Calculating this expression, we find:
theta_red ≈ 22.3°
To find the angle of refraction for blue light, we have:
1 * sin(34.6°) = 1.526 * sin(theta_blue)
sin(theta_blue) = (1 * sin(34.6°)) / 1.526
theta_blue = sin^(-1)((1 * sin(34.6°)) / 1.526)
Calculating this expression, we find:
theta_blue ≈ 22.1°
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Consider a straight piece of copper wire of length 8 m and diameter 4 mm that carries a current I = 3.5 A. There is a magnetic field of magnitude B directed perpendicular to the wire, and the magnetic force on the wire is just strong enough to "levitate" the wire (i.e., the magnetic force on the wire is equal to its weight). Find B. Hint: The density of copper is 9000 kg/m3 .
To find the magnitude of the magnetic field B, we can equate the magnetic force on the wire to its weight and solve for B. The weight of the wire can be calculated using its length, diameter, and density.
The magnetic force on the wire is given by the equation:F = B * I * Lwhere F is the magnetic force, B is the magnetic field, I is the current, and L is the length of the wire.
The weight of the wire can be calculated using its volume, density, and gravitational acceleration:
Weight = Volume * Density * g
where Volume is the cross-sectional area of the wire multiplied by its length.
Given:
Length of the wire (l) = 8 m
Diameter of the wire (d) = 4 mm = 0.004 m
Current through the wire (I) = 3.5 A
Density of copper (ρ) = 9000 kg/m^3
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s^2
First, let's calculate the weight of the wire:
Volume = π * (0.004/2)^2 * 8
Volume = 3.142 * (0.002)^2 * 8
Volume = 6.35 x 10^(-6) m^3
Mass = Volume * Density
Mass = 6.35 x 10^(-6) * 9000
Mass = 0.05715 kg
Weight = Mass * Gravity
Weight = 0.05715 * 9.8
Weight = 0.55967 N
Now, we can equate the magnetic force on the wire to its weight:
Magnetic Force = B * I * Length
0.55967 = B * 3.5 * 8
0.55967 = 28BB = 0.55967 / 28
B = 0.01999 T
Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic field B is approximately 0.01999 Tesla.
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MA1:A current carrying loop of wire is twisted into a circle, flat on the plane of the page. If the current travels counterclockwise, draw (or describe) the direction of the magnetic field both inside and outside of the loop.
The direction of the magnetic field inside the loop is counterclockwise. Outside the loop, the magnetic field lines also form concentric circles, but they are in the opposite direction, clockwise.
When a current flows through a wire, it creates a magnetic field around it. In the case of a current-carrying loop twisted into a circle, the magnetic field lines inside the loop form concentric circles centered on the axis of the loop. The direction of the magnetic field inside the loop is counterclockwise, as determined by the right-hand rule.
Outside the loop, the magnetic field lines also form concentric circles, but they are in the opposite direction, clockwise. This is due to the fact that the magnetic field lines always form closed loops and follow a specific pattern around a current-carrying wire.
In conclusion, inside the current-carrying loop, the magnetic field lines form concentric circles in a counterclockwise direction, while outside the loop, they form concentric circles in a clockwise direction.
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An aircraft accelerates down the runway before leaving the ground. Air resistance cannot be neglected. Y Part A Identify the forces acting on the aircraft. Check all that apply. A. Thrust B. Tension T C. Drag D D. Spring force e. Weight w F. Normal force
An aircraft accelerates down the runway before leaving the ground. Air resistance cannot be neglected.The forces acting on the aircraft are thrust,drag,weight and normal force.So option A,C,E and F are correct.
In the scenario where air resistance cannot be neglected, the forces acting on the aircraft during its acceleration down the runway are:
A. Thrust - This force is generated by the engines of the aircraft, pushing it forward.
C. Drag - This force opposes the motion of the aircraft and is caused by air resistance. It acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft's velocity.
E. Weight (w) - This force is the gravitational force acting on the aircraft due to its mass. It acts vertically downward towards the center of the Earth.
F. Normal force - This force is exerted by the ground on the aircraft and acts perpendicular to the surface of contact (upward in this case).
Therefore option A,C,E and F are correct.
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The following three questions relate to the following information: The fundamental frequency of a string 2.40 m long, fixed at both ends, is 22.5 Hz.
What is the wavelength of the wave in the string at its fundamental frequency? (a) 0.11 m (b) 1.20 m (c) 2.40 m (d) 4.80 m 17.
The frequencies of the first two overtones that may be formed by this length of string are (a) 45 Hz and 67.5 Hz (b) 45 Hz and 90 Hz (c) 22.5 Hz and 45 Hz (d) 67.5 Hz and 90 Hz 18. The speed of the wave in this string is (compare with the velocity of sound in air : 346 m s−1 ), (a) 54 m s−1 (b) 108 m s−1 (c) 216 m s−1 (d) 346 m s−1
The wavelength of the wave in the string at its fundamental frequency is option (d) 4.80 m.
The frequencies of the first two overtones that may be formed by this length of string is option (a) 45 Hz and 67.5 Hz.
The speed of the wave in this string is option (b) 108 m/s.
The wavelength of the wave in the string at its fundamental frequency can be calculated as follows:
Given, Length of the string, L = 2.40 m
Fundamental frequency of the string, f1 = 22.5 Hz
The formula to calculate the wavelength is:
wavelength = (2 × L)/n
Where, n = the harmonic number.
The given frequency is the fundamental frequency. Therefore, n = 1. Substituting the values, we get:
wavelength = (2 × L)/n
wavelength = (2 × 2.40 m)/1
= 4.80 m
Hence, the correct option is (d) 4.80 m.
Frequencies of the first two overtones that may be formed by this length of the string are given by the formula:
frequencies of overtones = n × f1
where, n = 2, 3, 4, 5, 6…Substituting the value of f1, we get:
frequencies of overtones = n × 22.5 Hz
At n = 2, frequency of the first overtone = 2 × 22.5 Hz
= 45 Hz
At n = 3, frequency of the second overtone = 3 × 22.5 Hz
= 67.5 Hz
Therefore, the correct option is (a) 45 Hz and 67.5 Hz.
The speed of the wave in the string can be calculated using the formula:
v = f × λ
where, v = velocity of the wave, f = frequency of the wave, and λ = wavelength of the wave.
Substituting the values of v, f, and λ, we get:
v = 22.5 Hz × 4.80 mv
= 108 m/s
Therefore, the correct option is (b) 108 m/s.
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A uniform electric field is directed in the +x-direction and has a magnitude E. A mass 0.072 kg and charge +2.90 mC is suspended by a thread between the plates. The tension in the thread is 0.84 N. 1.)What angle does the thread make with the vertical axis? Please give answer in degrees. 2.)Find the magnitude of the electric force. Please give answers in N to three significant figures.
The angle that the thread makes with the vertical axis is 35.3 degrees and the magnitude of the electric force is 2.46 N.
1. The angle that the thread makes with the vertical axis is 35.3 degrees.
2. The magnitude of the electric force is 2.46 N.
Here are the steps in solving for the angle and the magnitude of the electric force:
1. Solve for the components of the electric force. The electric force is in the +x-direction, so its vertical component is zero. The horizontal component of the electric force is equal to the tension in the thread multiplied by the cosine of the angle between the thread and the vertical axis.
F_x = T * cos(theta) = 0.84 N * cos(theta)
2. Solve for the angle.We can use the following equation to solve for the angle:
tan(theta) = F_x / mg
where:
theta is the angle between the thread and the vertical axis
F_x is the horizontal component of the electric force
m is the mass of the charge
g is the acceleration due to gravity
tan(theta) = 0.84 N / (0.072 kg * 9.8 m/s^2) =1.12
theta = arctan(1.12) = 35.3 degrees
3. Solve for the magnitude of the electric force.We can use the following equation to solve for the magnitude of the electric force:
F = E * q
where:
F is the magnitude of the electric force
E is the magnitude of the electric field
q is the charge of the particle
F = E * q = (E) * (2.90 mC) = 2.46 N
Therefore, the angle that the thread makes with the vertical axis is 35.3 degrees and the magnitude of the electric force is 2.46 N.
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"The open-circuit voltages are 3.5 V for LiFePO4, 4.1 V for LiMnPO4, 4.8 V for LiCoPO4, and 5.1 V for LiNiPO4, thus explaining the lack of electrochemical activity for LiNiPO4 within the normal cycling potential range"
This is the sentence on my text book. I knew that operating voltage of cathode is better higher but here saying that of LiNiPO4 means lack of something. What am I misunderstanding? Please help me
The statement "The open-circuit voltages are 3.5 V for LiFePO4, 4.1 V for LiMnPO4, 4.8 V for LiCoPO4, and 5.1 V for LiNiPO4, thus explaining the lack of electrochemical activity for LiNiPO4 within the normal cycling potential range" means that the voltage range of LiNiPO4 lies beyond the normal cycling potential range of lithium-ion batteries.
The cycling potential range of a battery refers to the voltage range of a battery that can be used in its normal operations, such as discharging and charging. It is the voltage range between the battery's discharge cut-off voltage and the charge cut-off voltage.
Normal cycling potential ranges for lithium-ion batteries range from 2.7 V to 4.2 V. LiNiPO4 has an open-circuit voltage of 5.1 V, which is outside of the typical cycling potential range of lithium-ion batteries. The lack of electrochemical activity of LiNiPO4 within the normal cycling potential range is due to this reason.
The voltage range of LiNiPO4 is beyond the standard cycling potential range for lithium-ion batteries. As a result, there is insufficient electrochemical activity for LiNiPO4 to be used within the normal cycling potential range.
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Verify that a 2.3 x 1017kg mass of water at normal density would make a cube 61 km on a side. (This mass at nuclear density would make a cube 1.0 m on a side. Submit a file with a maximum size of 1 MB
To verify the given information, let's calculate the volume of water represented by a mass of 2.3 x 10^17 kg at normal density and check if it would form a cube with a side length of 61 km.
Density of water at normal conditions is approximately 1000 kg/m³.
Volume = Mass / Density
Volume = (2.3 x 10^17 kg) / (1000 kg/m³)
Volume = 2.3 x 10^14 m³
Side length = ∛Volume
Side length = ∛(2.3 x 10^14 m³)
Side length ≈ 611.6 km
Therefore, the calculated side length is approximately 611.6 km, which is close to the given value of 61 km. It seems there might be an error in the given information, as the side length would be much larger than stated.
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A centrifuge's angular velocity is initially at 300.0 radians/second to test the stability of a high speed drill component. It then increases its angular velocity to 871.0 radians/second. If this is achieved in 4,900.0 radians what is the angular acceleration of the centrifuge? Note: Your units should include radians Your Answer: Answer units
The angular acceleration of the centrifuge is approximately (871.0 - 300.0) * ((871.0 - 300.0) / (4,900.0 / (2π))) radians per second squared.
To calculate the angular acceleration of the centrifuge, we can use the formula:
angular acceleration (α) = (final angular velocity (ωf) - initial angular velocity (ωi)) / time (t)
Initial angular velocity (ωi) = 300.0 radians/second
Final angular velocity (ωf) = 871.0 radians/second
Total angular displacement (θ) = 4,900.0 radians
We can convert the time (t) into the number of revolutions (N) using the formula,
θ = 2πN
Plugging in the values,
4,900.0 = 2πN
N = 4,900.0 / (2π)
Now we can calculate the time (t),
t = N / (final angular velocity (ωf) - initial angular velocity (ωi))
Substituting the values,
t = (4,900.0 / (2π)) / (871.0 - 300.0)
Now we can calculate the angular acceleration (α),
α = (final angular velocity (ωf) - initial angular velocity (ωi)) / time (t)
Substituting the values,
α = (871.0 - 300.0) / t
Calculating α,
α = (871.0 - 300.0) / ((4,900.0 / (2π)) / (871.0 - 300.0))
Simplifying the equation,
α ≈ (871.0 - 300.0) * ((871.0 - 300.0) / (4,900.0 / (2π)))
Therefore, the angular acceleration of the centrifuge is approximately (871.0 - 300.0) * ((871.0 - 300.0) / (4,900.0 / (2π))) radians per second squared.
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The force on a particle is directed along an x axis and given by F = Fo(x/xo - 1) where x is in meters and F is in Newtons. If Fo = 1.4 N and x。 = 5.1 m, find the work done by the force in moving the particle from x = 0 to x = 2x0 m.
The work done by the force in moving the particle from x = 0 to x = 2x₀ is -12.6 N·m. To find the work done by the force in moving the particle from x = 0 to x = 2x₀, we need to calculate the integral of the force with respect to x over the given interval.
F = F₀(x/x₀ - 1)
F₀ = 1.4 N
x₀ = 5.1 m
We want to calculate the work done from x = 0 to x = 2x₀.
The work done is given by the integral of the force over the interval:
W = ∫[0 to 2x₀] F dx
Substituting the given force equation:
W = ∫[0 to 2x₀] F₀(x/x₀ - 1) dx
To solve this integral, we need to integrate each term separately.
The integral of F₀(x/x₀) with respect to x is:
∫[0 to 2x₀] F₀(x/x₀) dx = F₀ * (x²/2x₀) [0 to 2x₀] = F₀ * (2x₀/2x₀ - 0/2x₀) = F₀
The integral of F₀(-1) with respect to x is:
∫[0 to 2x₀] F₀(-1) dx = -F₀ * x [0 to 2x₀] = -F₀ * (2x₀ - 0) = -2F₀x₀
Adding the integrals together, we get:
W = F₀ + (-2F₀x₀) = F₀ - 2F₀x₀ = 1.4 N - 2(1.4 N)(5.1 m)
Calculating the numerical value:
W = 1.4 N - 2(1.4 N)(5.1 m) = 1.4 N - 14 N·m = -12.6 N·m
Therefore, the work done by the force in moving the particle from x = 0 to x = 2x₀ is -12.6 N·m.
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Two charged dust particles exert a force of 0.032 N on each other. How large is the force if they are moved only one-eighth as far apart? (use 3 significant figures)
The distance between the particles increases to 1/8 times the initial distance if they are separated by an eighth as much.
We know that the expression for Force acting between two particles is given asF = k * (q1 * q2) / r^2
Where:
F is the force between the particlesk is the electrostatic constantq1 and q2 are the charges of the particlesr is the distance between the particlesAccording to Coulomb's law, the force between the particles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. So, if the distance becomes (1/8) * r, the force would increase by a factor of (r / [(1/8) * r])^2.
The new distance between the particles would be (1/8) * r.
Simplifying this expression, we get (8/1)^2, which is equal to 64.
The force between the particles would therefore increase by a factor of 64 if they were only separated by an eighth of that distance.
Given that the original force is 0.032 N, multiplying it by the factor of 64 gives us:
New force = 0.032 N * 64 = 2.048 N
So, the force would be 2.048 N if the particles are moved only one-eighth as far apart.
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An electron moves in the magnetic field B=0.590i^ T with a speed of Express vector F in the form of Fx,Fy,Fz, where the x,y, and z components are separated by commas. 0.500×107 m/s in the directions shown in the figure. For each, what is magnetic force F on the electron? (Figure 1) You may want to review (Pages 815−820 ). For help with math skills, you may want to review: Figure 1 of 1 X Incorrect; Try Again; 4 attempts remaining Part B Express vector F in the form of Fx,Fy,Fz, where the x,y, and z components are separated by commas.
The magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron is [tex]-4.72\times10^{-3}N[/tex].
To calculate the magnetic force (F) on an electron moving in a magnetic field (B) with a given speed, we can use the formula F = q v x B, where q is the charge of the electron, v is its velocity, and x represents the cross product.
In this case, the magnetic field is given as B = 0.590i^ T, where i^ is the unit vector in the x-direction, and the speed of the electron is [tex]0.500\times10^{7}[/tex] m/s.
To express the magnetic force vector (F) in the form of Fx, Fy, Fz, we need to determine its components in the x, y, and z directions.
Since the magnetic field B is only in the x-direction, and the electron's velocity is given as [tex]0.500\times10^{7}[/tex] m/s, which is also in the x-direction, the cross product will result in a force only in the y-direction.
Hence, the components of the magnetic force vector can be expressed as [tex]F_x[/tex] = 0, [tex]F{y}[/tex] = F, and [tex]F_z[/tex] = 0.
To calculate the magnitude of the magnetic force (F), we can use the formula F = qvB.
Given that the charge of an electron (q) is [tex]-1.6\times10^{-19}[/tex] C, we can substitute the values into the formula and we get the magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron as,
[tex]F=(-1.6\times10^{-19})\times (0.500\times10^{7})\times 0.590=-4.72\times10^{-3} N[/tex]
Therefore,the magnitude of the magnetic force on the electron is [tex]-4.72\times10^{-3}N[/tex].
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The free fall ride Acrophobia in Six Flags Georgia takes passengers to a height of 61.0 m and drops them to the ground inside a ring like cage as in fig. How much time is this drop ride ? ignore air resistance.
Show all work including rough sketch, data listing, equation, substitution with units and solution with correct units.
The time it takes for the drop ride in Acrophobia at Six Flags Georgia is 3.53 seconds, ignoring air resistance.
How do we calculate?We apply the principles of free fall motion.
note that Free-falling objects do not encounter air resistance and that all free-falling objects (on Earth) accelerate downwards at a rate of 9.8 m/s/s
t = √(2h/g)
t = time of free fall
h = height of the drop
g = acceleration due to gravity= 9.8 m/s² on Earth
Height of the drop (h) = 61.0 m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
t = √(2 * 61.0 / 9.8)
t = √(122 / 9.8)
t = √12.45
t = 3.53 seconds
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In a photoelectric effect experiment, a metal with a work function of 1.4 eV is used.
What is the maximum wavelength of light that can be used to free electrons from the metal?
Enter your answer in micrometres (10-6 m) to two decimal places but do not enter the units in your response.
The energy of a photon of light is given by
E = hc/λ,
where
h is Planck's constant,
c is the speed of light and
λ is the wavelength of the light.
The photoelectric effect can occur only if the energy of the photon is greater than or equal to the work function (φ) of the metal.
Thus, we can use the following equation to determine the maximum wavelength of light that can be used to free electrons from the metal:
hc/λ = φ + KEmax
Where KEmax is the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted.
For the photoelectric effect,
KEmax = hf - φ
= hc/λ - φ
We can substitute this expression for KEmax into the first equation to get:
hc/λ = φ + hc/λ - φ
Solving for λ, we get:
λmax = hc/φ
where φ is the work function of the metal.
Substituting the given values:
Work function,
φ = 1.4 e
V = 1.4 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
= 2.24 × 10⁻¹⁸ J
Speed of light, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Planck's constant,
h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s
We get:
λmax = hc/φ
= (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s)(3 × 10⁸ m/s)/(2.24 × 10⁻¹⁸ J)
= 8.84 × 10⁻⁷ m
= 0.884 µm (to two decimal places)
Therefore, the maximum wavelength of light that can be used to free electrons from the metal is 0.884 µm.
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