The characteristic that does not contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors is the presence or absence of a tissue capsule. Adaptation is the procedure through which a receptor's sensitivity declines over time in reaction to a continuous stimulus that persists at the same strength.
Below are the characteristics that contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors:
1. The threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarization
2. Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal
3. Physical characteristics of capsule enclosing the receptor.
The threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarizationThe threshold of receptor membrane tissue distortion needed for depolarization is one of the characteristics that contribute to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors.
A receptor threshold is a minimum amount of energy required for a particular type of stimulus to elicit a response. Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal
Elasticity of the tissue surrounding the nerve terminal is also another characteristic that contributes to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors. This implies that the elasticity of the tissue decreases with continuous pressure; this may cause a decrease in receptor membrane potential.
Physical characteristics of the capsule enclosing the receptor. Physical characteristics of the capsule enclosing the receptor are another characteristic that contributes to the mechanism of adaptation in the phasic pressure receptors. The capsule surrounding the receptor is a crucial element in this mechanism. Capsules that are denser can decrease the receptor membrane's ability to distort. This decreases the membrane's potential to depolarize and sends nerve signals to the brain.
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Viva Voce Scenario
You are working as a registered nurse in a cardiology ward, buddied with a nursing student, Lachlan. You are assigned to care for Mrs Arnold, who was admitted with a dysrrhythmia. You note that Mrs Arnold has been charted 200mgamiodarone (Cordarone), an antidysrhythmic. Lachlan asksyou if you could explain the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone) to him.
Question 1:Explain to Lachlan the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone).
You take Mrs Arnold's blood pressure and note it is lower than her previous reading. Mrs Arnold asks you to explain why thisis happening.
Question 2:Provide an explanation to Mrs Arnoldwhy hypotension is one of the side-effects of amiodarone (Cordarone)
Lachlan asks you why amiodarone (Cordarone) is used.
Question 3:Explain to Lachlan why amiodarone (Cordarone) is used.
5 days later, Mrs Arnold is cleared for discharge. You approach Mrs Arnold before she leaves and offer her some advice.
Question 4:Explain to Mrs Arnold what considerations she needs to have when taking amiodarone (Cordarone).
General questions, not related to scenario
Question 5:Briefly provide a summary of what you learned from: a) your answer to your Weekly Topic Question; b) the postings that your read from your peers in your tutorial group.
Question 6: Choose one drug that you have learned to date in this subject.
(a) Provide the generic name of this drug and the class
(b) What is the mechanism of action that resulted in that specific therapeutic
effect?
1: Amiodarone (Cordarone) works through multiple mechanisms to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal rhythms.
2: Hypotension is a side effect of amiodarone (Cordarone) due to its ability to cause peripheral vasodilation and decrease systemic vascular resistance.
3: Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias by regulating electrical signals in the heart and restoring a normal rhythm.
1: The mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone) is complex and not fully understood. It exhibits antiarrhythmic effects through multiple mechanisms, including prolongation of the action potential duration, inhibition of adrenergic stimulation, calcium channel blockade, and blocking of potassium channels.
2: Hypotension is one of the side effects of amiodarone (Cordarone) due to its vasodilatory effects. Amiodarone can cause relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels, leading to peripheral vasodilation.
3: Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used for the treatment of various cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation. It is particularly effective in managing life-threatening arrhythmias that have not responded to other medications.
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The correct question is:
You are working as a registered nurse in a cardiology ward, buddying with a nursing student, Lachlan. You are assigned to care for Mrs. Arnold, who was admitted with dysrhythmia. You note that Mrs. Arnold has been chartered on 200 mg of amiodarone (Cordarone), an antidysrhythmic. Lachlan asks you if you could explain the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone) to him.
Question 1:Explain to Lachlan the mechanism of action of amiodarone (Cordarone). Mrs. Arnold's blood prenote thatit is lower than her previous reading. Mrs Arnold asks you to explain why thisis happening.
Question 2:Provide an explanation to Mrs Arnoldwhy hypotension is one of the side-effects of amiodarone (Cordarone) Lachlan asks you why amiodarone (Cordarone) is used.
Question 3:Explain to Lachlan why amiodarone (cordarone) is used. Five days later, Mrs. Arnold is cleared for discharge. You approach Mrs. Arnold before she leaves and offer her some advice.
what will you say if someone come up to you andask if
you have completed your advaced directive?explain why or
whynot?explain atleast 2sentence.
If someone asked me if I have completed my advanced directive, I would say yes or no. An advanced directive outlines a person's medical treatment preferences in case they become unable to make their own decisions.
If someone came up to me and asked if I have completed my advanced directive, I would answer yes or no, depending on whether or not I have completed it. An advanced directive is a legal document that outlines a person's medical treatment preferences in case they become unable to make their own decisions due to illness or injury. It is important to have an advanced directive in place to ensure that a person's wishes are respected and followed when they are unable to communicate for themselves.
If I have not completed my advanced directive, I would explain that it is an important document to have in case something happens to me and I am unable to make my own medical decisions. There are many reasons why someone may not have completed their advanced directive, such as not knowing what it is, not wanting to think about it, or not knowing how to complete it. However, it is important to have one in place to ensure that one's wishes are respected and followed in a medical emergency.
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A 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds is to take ferrous sulfate (feosol) 6 mg/kg/d po. how many milligram will the child receive per dose?
Since we assumed the dosage is once a day, the child will receive 87 mg per dose.
Therefore, the child will receive 87 mg per dose of ferrous sulfate (Feosol).
To calculate the dosage of ferrous sulfate (Feosol) for a 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds, we need to convert the weight to kilograms.
1 pound is approximately 0.45 kilograms, so the child weighs approximately 14.5 kilograms (32 pounds × 0.45 kg/pound).
Next, we need to determine the dosage per kilogram. The dosage is 6 mg/kg/day.
So, to find the dosage per dose, we divide the daily dosage by the number of doses per day. In this case, we are not given the number of doses per day. Assuming it is once a day, we will calculate based on that assumption.
The child will receive [tex]6 mg/kg/day × 14.5 kg/day = 87[/tex]mg/day.
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The epidemiologic factors that contribute to infectious disease outbreaks are the roles of the host, the __________, the environmental circumstances, and time-related issues.
The epidemiologic factors that contribute to infectious disease outbreaks are the roles of the host, the agent, the environmental circumstances, and time-related issues. The role of the host is critical in the transmission of infectious diseases.
The host, or the organism that becomes infected, may spread the disease through direct or indirect contact. Host factors that may contribute to infectious disease outbreaks include age, immune status, genetic susceptibility, and behavior.
The agent, or the organism that causes the disease, is another important epidemiologic factor. Agents may include viruses, bacteria, fungi, parasites, or prions. Some agents may be more contagious than others, or may cause more severe disease.
Environmental circumstances also play a role in infectious disease outbreaks. For example, contaminated food or water can spread disease, as can poor sanitation or overcrowding. Climate and weather can also impact the spread of disease, as some agents thrive in specific environmental conditions.
Finally, time-related issues may contribute to infectious disease outbreaks. These can include seasonal factors, such as the flu season, or changes in the ecology of an area, such as deforestation or urbanization. Understanding these epidemiologic factors is critical in preventing and controlling infectious disease outbreaks.
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Mr. Franklin has an infusion of dopamine to maintain his blood pressure. The infusion started with 800 mg/250 mL D5W at 8 ml/h, and over the past 5 hours it was titrated up to 15 mL/h. He has received 65 mL of the solution. How much dopamine has he received?
The dopamine received by Mr. Franklin through infusion of dopamine is 208 mg.
A medical gadget called an infusion pump helps patients receive fluids like nutrition and drugs in precisely measured volumes.
Using the straightforward equation that 250 ml of D5W contains 800 mg of dopamine, we may find a solution to this issue.
So, [tex]\frac{800}{250}[/tex] mg of dopamine are present in 1 ml.
Therefore, [tex]\frac{800}{250}*65 = 208 mg[/tex] Of dopamine will be present in 65 ml.
After administering 65 ml of the solution, Mr. Franklin received 208 mg of dopamine.
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The question is incomplete, the probable question is:
Mr. Franklin has an infusion of dopamine to maintain his blood pressure. The infusion started with 800 mg/250 mL D5W at 8 ml/h, and over the past 5 hours it was titrated up to 15 mL/h. He has received 65 mL of the solution. How much dopamine has he received?
2080 mL208 mg20.8 mg2080 mgThe nurse is composing a multi-generational schematic description of biologic/legal/emotional relationships from generation to generation. This is known as: Select one: O a. Boundaries O b. Scapegoating O c. Genogram O d. Triangulation
The nurse is composing a multi-generational schematic description called a Genogram(Option c) of biological/legal/emotional relationships from generation to generation.
What is a Genogram?
A genogram is a pictorial family tree that depicts the relationships between individuals across many generations. It demonstrates family patterns such as mental and physical illnesses, and physical or psychological traits that could be passed down from one generation to the next. It might help to identify connections and conflicts that may influence mental health, including substance abuse and addiction, depression, and anxiety disorders.
It is a method used to assess family dynamics and figure out how they can be impacting an individual, as well as a way of getting a better understanding of family history and past generations. It is utilized by a variety of professionals, including family therapists, psychologists, and physicians, to assist in diagnosing and treating a wide range of issues in individuals and families.
Therefore, the multi-generational schematic description called a Genogram(Option c) is used to compose biological/legal/emotional relationships from generation to generation.
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) Discuss poor EMR/HER implementations in healthcare organizations (5
marks)
B) Discuss potential barriers that might hinder the adoption of EHR/EMR’s in a
healthcare organization C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMR’s D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMR’s E) With some of the problems provided in the previous questions you
answered, give examples of how those problems can be changed into
solutions and how you would implement that change within healthcare (5
marks)
A) Poor EMR/EHR implementations can lead to data integrity, and medical security breaches .
B) Potential barriers to EHR/EMR adoption include financial constraints.
C) Problems with actual EHR/EMR systems include interoperability challenges.
D) Factors affecting EHR/EMR systems include vendor selection.
A) Poor EMR/EHR implementations in healthcare organizations can have several concerning implications: Data integrity: Inadequate implementation can lead to errors in data entry or transfer, compromising patient safety and quality of care. Medical security breaches: Unauthorized access to physical areas within medical facilities can lead to the theft of medical equipment, pharmaceuticals, or sensitive documents containing patient information.
B) Potential barriers to EHR/EMR adoption in healthcare organizations may include Financial constraints: The initial cost of implementing an EHR/EMR system, along with ongoing maintenance expenses, can be a significant barrier for healthcare.
C) Problems with actual EHR/EMR systems can include Interoperability challenges: Incompatibility between different EHR/EMR systems can hinder seamless data exchange and integration with other healthcare systems.
D) Factors that can affect EHR/EMR systems include Vendor selection: The choice of EHR/EMR vendor and the level of support provided can influence the success and effectiveness of the system's implementation.
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The correct question is:
Discuss poor EMR/HER implementations in healthcare organizations (explain all).
A. Concerning the poor EMR/HER
B) Discuss potential barriers that might hinder the adoption of EHR/EMRs in a healthcare organization
C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMRs
D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMRs
Question 8 (2.2 points) Which nursing interventions would be appropriate for a patient diagnosed with deficient fluid volume? Select all that apply. Intravenous therapy Fluid restriction Hypervolemia management Electrolyte management Nutrition management Monitoring edema Question 9 (2.2 points) Which of the following are appropriate reasons for a nurse to establish a peripherally inserted venous (PIV) catheter line for a patient? Select all that apply. The patient needs thickened liquids To replace fluids and electrolytes in a critically ill patient The patient needs a highly vesicant medication like chemotherapy. The patient is NPO The patient is unconscious
The patient needing thickened liquids and the patient being NPO are not appropriate reasons for a nurse to establish a peripherally inserted venous (PIV) catheter line.
Deficient fluid volume, also known as hypovolemia, is a condition that can be treated using various nursing interventions.
The following are the nursing interventions that would be appropriate for a patient diagnosed with deficient fluid volume:
I. Intravenous therapy
II. Fluid restriction
III. Hypervolemia management
IV. Electrolyte management
V. Nutrition management
VI. Monitoring edema
Therefore, options I, II, III, IV, V, and VI are all correct.
A peripherally inserted venous (PIV) catheter line can be established by nurses for various reasons.
Here are the appropriate reasons why a nurse would establish a peripherally inserted venous (PIV) catheter line for a patient:
I. To replace fluids and electrolytes in a critically ill patient
II. The patient needs a highly vesicant medication like chemotherapy.
III. The patient is unconscious
Therefore, options I, II, and V are correct.
The patient needing thickened liquids and the patient being NPO are not appropriate reasons for a nurse to establish a peripherally inserted venous (PIV) catheter line.
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The prescriber orders a 27 kis child to have 100% of maintenance flulds, Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100ml per kg Second 10 kg at 50ml perkg All remaining ks at 20mi per kig. Calculate the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL. per hour: 136.7 mL/hr 70 mL/hr 68.3 mL/hr 102 mL/hr
The child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.
The prescriber orders a 27 kg child to have 100% of maintenance fluids. Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100 ml per kg. Second 10 kg at 50 ml per kg. All remaining kgs at 20 ml per kg.
The formula for calculating maintenance fluids is: First 10 kg: 100 ml per kg. Next 10 kg: 50 ml per kg. All remaining kg: 20 ml per kg.
Now, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour will be calculated as follows: First 10 kg: 10 kg x 100 ml/kg = 1000 ml. Next 10 kg: 10 kg x 50 ml/kg = 500 ml.
All remaining kg: 7 kg x 20 ml/kg = 140 ml. Total fluids required in 24 hours = 1000 ml + 500 ml + 140 ml = 1640 ml
Therefore, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour = 1640 ml/24 hours = 68.3 ml/hr. Therefore, the child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.
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A physician orders ampicillin 0.2 g/kg/d IV to be delivered in divided doses q6h. The patient weighs 110 lb. How many mg are needed per dose? How many grams of ampicillin would the patient receive"
A physician orders ampicillin 0.2 g/kg/d IV to be delivered in divided doses q6h. The patient weighs 110 lb. 10000 mg are needed per dose. 40 grams of ampicillin would the patient receive.
To calculate the amount of ampicillin needed per dose, we first convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. Since 1 lb is approximately 0.45 kg (1 lb / 2.2), we divide the weight of 110 lb by 2.2 to get 50 kg.
Next, we multiply the weight (50 kg) by the prescribed dosage of 0.2 g/kg to find the amount of ampicillin needed per dose. This calculation is 50 kg x 0.2 g/kg = 10 g. To convert grams to milligrams, we multiply by 1000, resulting in 10,000 mg per dose.
For the total amount of ampicillin the patient would receive in a day, we consider the dosing frequency of every 6 hours (q6h), which means the patient will receive the medication 4 times in a day.
Therefore, we multiply the dose per administration (10 g) by the number of doses in a day (4 doses), giving us a total of 40 g of ampicillin the patient would receive in a day.
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How many grams of dextrose are in the fluid for the label shown? How many minutes will it take to infuse at 2 mL/min? How many drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/
Volume: 500 mL, Dextrose: 5%.How many drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL?
Answer:Grams of dextrose in the fluid:First, we need to find out the amount of dextrose in grams.5% of 500 mL = (5/100) × 500 mL= 25 gSo, there are 25 grams of dextrose in the fluid for the label shown.How many minutes will it take to infuse at 2 mL/min?Time taken = Volume ÷ Flow rate= 500 mL ÷ 2 mL/min= 250 minutesSo, it will take 250 minutes to infuse the given fluid at 2 mL/min.
We need to use the formula,Flow rate = (Volume ÷ Time) × Drop factor= (500 mL ÷ 60 min) × 15 gtt/mL= 125 gtt/minSo, 125 drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL.Explanation:We are given the volume and concentration of dextrose. We calculated the amount of dextrose in grams using concentration and volume.Next, we calculated the time taken to infuse the fluid at a given flow rate.Using the flow rate formula and drop factor, we determined the drops per minute to be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. The detailed solution is given above.
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"Define in your own words what autonomic dysreflexia is.
Autonomic dysreflexia, often known as hyperreflexia, is a medical emergency that occurs in individuals who have sustained an injury to the spinal cord above the T6 level.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that affects people who have had spinal cord injuries. It's characterized by a sudden spike in blood pressure that can cause headaches, blurred vision, sweating, and other symptoms. It can be caused by something as simple as a full bladder or bowel movement, or it can be brought on by something more serious like a kidney infection or blood clot. There are a variety of symptoms that can occur as a result of autonomic dysreflexia, including sweating above the level of the injury, headache, flushing of the skin above the level of the injury, a stuffy nose, a slower heart rate, high blood pressure. In rare cases, it may cause convulsions or even loss of consciousness. Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency that should be treated immediately. Treatment involves determining the cause of the episode and taking steps to lower blood pressure, such as emptying the bladder or bowel or using medications.
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14. Which of the following does NOT increase blood pressure? a. b. Increased sodium uptake in kidneys stimulated by aldosterone Increased water uptake in kidneys stimulated by anti-diuretic hormone c. Signal of decreased thirst d. Vasoconstriction 15. Which of the following structures is part of the respiratory zone? a. Pharynx b. Larynx C. Trachea d. Alveoli solls produce?
The signal of decreased thirst does NOT increase blood pressure.
The alveoli are part of the respiratory zone.
Thirst is the body's way of signaling a need for fluid intake, typically in response to dehydration or increased salt levels in the body. When the body is dehydrated, it releases hormones that stimulate thirst and conserve water. However, the signal of decreased thirst does not increase blood pressure.
Blood pressure refers to the force exerted by circulating blood against the walls of blood vessels. It is influenced by various factors, including the volume of blood in the body, the elasticity of blood vessels, and the diameter of blood vessels.
Increased sodium uptake in the kidneys stimulated by aldosterone and increased water uptake in the kidneys stimulated by anti-diuretic hormone both play a role in regulating blood pressure. Aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys, which increases the volume of blood in circulation, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) helps the kidneys retain water, which also increases blood volume and subsequently raises blood pressure.
Vasoconstriction is another factor that increases blood pressure. It involves the narrowing of blood vessels, which leads to increased resistance against blood flow and consequently raises blood pressure.
On the other hand, the signal of decreased thirst does not directly impact blood pressure. It simply indicates that the body's fluid needs have been met or that there is no immediate need for additional fluid intake. While proper hydration is essential for overall health, the absence of thirst does not contribute to an increase in blood pressure.
The respiratory zone is the region of the respiratory system where gas exchange takes place. It consists of the structures directly involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide with the bloodstream. Among the options provided, the alveoli are the structures that are part of the respiratory zone.
The alveoli are tiny, balloon-like sacs located at the ends of the respiratory bronchioles. They are surrounded by an extensive network of capillaries, where the actual exchange of gases occurs. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the thin walls of the alveoli and into the capillaries, while carbon dioxide moves in the opposite direction, from the capillaries into the alveoli, to be exhaled.
The pharynx, larynx, and trachea are part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system. They serve as passageways for air to travel from the nose or mouth down to the lungs but are not directly involved in gas exchange.
The pharynx is the common passage for both food and air, connecting the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx. The larynx, commonly known as the voice box, contains the vocal cords and helps produce sound. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube reinforced with cartilage rings that leads air from the larynx to the bronchi, which further divide into smaller bronchioles and eventually reach the alveoli.
In summary, the alveoli, with their thin walls and extensive capillary network, are the structures within the respiratory system that are directly involved in the exchange of gases and are part of the respiratory zone.
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When you search in CINAHL, you will find articles that have been tagged with Medical Subject Headings (MeSH). True False
When you search in CINAHL, you will find articles that have been tagged with Medical Subject Headings (MeSH). This statement is true.
The Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL) is an authoritative database for literature on nursing and allied health subjects. This database is used to find and access nursing and allied health articles. CINAHL has an advanced search option, which allows for searching using keywords and Medical Subject Headings (MeSH).
MeSH is a controlled vocabulary used by CINAHL to tag and classify articles. MeSH is made up of terms and descriptors that are used to categorize medical articles according to their subject. MeSH is updated every year to add new terms and descriptors that reflect current research and advancements in medicine. When a user searches for an article using CINAHL, MeSH terms are used to retrieve the relevant articles.
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Physical assessment.
1. As a nurse, what are the Introduction procedures including
AIDET for physical assessment
2. Head-to-toe physical assessment
3. What are the Safety checks and procedures you nee
As a nurse, when conducting a physical assessment, the following procedures must be included: Introduction procedures including AIDET for physical assessment: AIDET stands for Acknowledge, Introduce, Duration, Explanation, and Thank you.
As such, it is essential for a nurse to follow these procedures during physical assessments to make patients feel comfortable and at ease. Head-to-toe physical assessment: When conducting a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse needs to assess the patient's skin, eyes, ears, nose, mouth, throat, and neck, among other body parts. This will involve taking the patient's vitals such as blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, temperature, and heart rate.
The nurse also assesses the abdomen, rectum, and genitourinary system. Safety checks and procedures required:
To ensure patient safety during physical assessment, the nurse should always observe the following: Check the bed's height, making sure it is at the right level to avoid falls. Ensure the call bell is within reach of the patient during the assessment process. Make sure the patient is adequately covered to maintain their privacy and dignity. Ensure the examination room is adequately lit to avoid accidents. Make sure the patient's history and allergy lists are up to date.The nurse should always use clean gloves when assessing patients to reduce the risk of infections.
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Pitocin (oxycotin) at 40 ml/hr. Supplied: One liter bag of normal saline containing 30 units of Pitocin. Directions: Determine how many units of Pitocin the patient is receiving per hour.
Let's take a look at the question:Supplied: One-liter bag of normal saline containing 30 units of Pitocin. Pitocin (oxytocin) at 40 ml/hr.Directions: Determine how many units of Pitocin the patient is receiving per hour.
Pitocin is a medication used to induce labor or improve contractions during childbirth. Pitocin (oxytocin) is a natural hormone produced by the pituitary gland. It induces the uterus to contract, helping labor progress and delivery. It comes as a solution in a 100 mL glass bottle, which contains 10 units of oxytocin per mL.
First, convert the supplied Pitocin to ml; a liter is 1000 ml, and the bag contains 30 units of Pitocin.1000 ml / 30 units = 33.33 ml/u.
Now that we have the concentration of Pitocin per milliliter (33.33 ml/u), we can multiply it by the rate (40 ml/hr).33.33 ml/u x 40 ml/hr = 1333.33 u/hr.
Since there are only 10 units of Pitocin per ml, we must divide our answer by 10.1333.33 u/hr / 10 = 133.33 u/hr.
Therefore, the patient is receiving 1200 units of Pitocin per hour, as a one-liter bag of normal saline contains 30 units of Pitocin.
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Explain the pathophysiology of Meningococcal septicaemia?
(200-300 words)
Meningococcal septicaemia is a condition that affects the human body in a variety of ways. It occurs when bacteria invade the bloodstream and cause a systemic inflammatory response.
Pathophysiology :
It is a serious illness that can lead to death if not diagnosed and treated early enough. This disease affects people of all ages and is more common in children and young adults.
It is caused by bacteria Neisseria meningitidis
(
meningococcus) enters the bloodstream and starts multiplying.
Once it enters the bloodstream, the bacteria triggers a systemic inflammatory response in the body.
The bacteria produces lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on its cell surface that can trigger an inflammatory respons. It bind to LPS-binding protein and then binds to CD14 which present on the surface of monocytes and macrophages.
Once the LPS binds to CD14, it activates a cascade of events that lead to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines like interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). The pro-inflammatory cytokines released cause an increase in vascular permeability which results in leakage of fluid and plasma into the tissues.
The plasma leakage is responsible for the characteristic rash seen in the disease. As it progresses, it can lead to multiple organ failure due to the activation of the coagulation cascade due to the presence of endotoxins in the bloodstream
The formation of microclots in the capillaries of various organs. leading to ischemia and infarction of organs finally leads to the failure of multiple organ systems and can ultimately lead to death.
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Given the independent nature of healthcare regarding professional identity, hospital teams are often developed – not through an interprofessional team focus – but intraprofessionally, with professional peers from their own discipline making the hiring sessions, who are often people who won’t be a part of their interprofessional team.
True or false?
Given the independent nature of healthcare regarding professional identity, hospital teams are developed with professionals from own discipline making, who won’t be a part of interprofessional team. - False
Hospital teams are increasingly being formed with an interprofessional team focus due to the interconnected nature of healthcare and the acknowledgement of the significance of collaboration and teamwork in providing quality care. Teams of healthcare specialists from various specialities collaborate to provide patients with thorough and well-coordinated care. The major objective of interprofessional team development is to create teams comprising individuals from various professions, including doctors, nurses, chemists, social workers, and allied health professionals.
These teams' makeup represents the range of knowledge and viewpoints needed for efficient patient care. It implies that hospital teams are created intraprofessionally, by members of the same profession working together to establish teams. This, however, runs counter to current thinking and trend in healthcare, which promotes interprofessional collaboration and teamwork to improve patient outcomes and healthcare delivery.
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a nurse is assessing a family's interactions with a local recreational soccer league their daughter participates in, their synagogue, their children's private school community, and their neighborhood. which tool would be best for the nurse to use?
In addition, the nurse can use the tool to evaluate the effectiveness of the plan of care over time. The Family APGAR tool is an effective tool for assessing family functioning and identifying areas for improvement in families.
A nurse that is assessing a family's interactions with a local recreational soccer league, their synagogue, their children's private school community, and their neighborhood would use the Family APGAR tool. Family APGAR stands for Adaptability, Partnership, Growth, Affection, and Resolve. This tool is commonly used to evaluate family functioning. A nurse can use the tool to determine if the family is functioning well or if there are any issues that need to be addressed. The Family APGAR tool is made up of five sections, each representing an area of family functioning.
The nurse asks the family members questions about each of these sections and scores their responses. If the score is high, it means that the family is functioning well in that area. If the score is low, it means that there are issues that need to be addressed.The tool is helpful in identifying any problems that may be affecting the family's interactions with the soccer league, synagogue, private school community, and neighborhood. The nurse can then use the results of the assessment to develop a plan of care to help the family address these issues.
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Nurses are taught to, "do no harm." Discuss how medical
professionals who were involved in the Tuskegee study did or did
not adhere to this golden rule?
The medical professionals involved in the Tuskegee study did not adhere to the principle of "do no harm."
The Tuskegee study, conducted between 1932 and 1972, involved withholding treatment from African American men with syphilis to observe the natural progression of the disease.
This study violated several ethical principles, including informed consent, respect for autonomy, and beneficence.
The medical professionals involved failed to provide proper medical care and knowingly allowed harm to be inflicted upon the participants by withholding effective treatment.
By intentionally withholding treatment and concealing information from the participants, the medical professionals violated the fundamental principle of "do no harm." They not only failed to provide the necessary medical intervention but also prolonged the suffering of the participants and allowed the progression of a potentially deadly disease.
This disregard for the well-being and dignity of the individuals involved demonstrates a clear violation of the ethical obligations that medical professionals have to prioritize patient welfare and prevent harm.
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Do you think other diseases such as COVID-19 could be eradicated from human populations? Why or why not?
While it is difficult to predict the future with certainty, complete eradication of diseases like COVID-19 from human populations is unlikely.
Diseases like COVID-19 are caused by highly infectious pathogens that can spread rapidly and adapt to their environments. Achieving complete eradication would require a combination of factors such as effective vaccines, widespread vaccination coverage, rigorous public health measures, and global cooperation. However, viruses can mutate, new variants can emerge, and some individuals may remain susceptible due to various factors like vaccine hesitancy or limited access to healthcare. Additionally, the interconnectedness of the world through travel and trade makes it challenging to control the spread of infectious diseases on a global scale. Instead, the focus is typically on managing and controlling the disease through measures like vaccination, treatment, and public health interventions.
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what is the history of dental assistant by summarizing
the chapter one of Modern Dental Assistant text.
Dental assistants are an essential part of dental health care and have a rich history that goes back many years. The chapter one of Modern Dental Assistant text by Doni L. Bird and Debbie S. Robinson explores the history of dental assisting in detail.
Dental assistants were initially known as "Ladies in Attendance," according to the text. It was customary for male dentists to hire women to assist them with dental procedures, including cleaning instruments and preparing materials. This practice continued until the early 20th century, when women began to enter the dental profession on a larger scale. With more women dentists, the role of dental assistants became more specialized and required a higher level of training.
Today, dental assistants perform a wide range of duties, from patient care and chairside assisting to office management and laboratory work. They work alongside dentists and dental hygienists to ensure patients receive the best possible care. Dental assisting is a rewarding and in-demand career that offers a variety of opportunities for those who are passionate about oral health care.
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You are a nurse with Oakton Infertility Clinic and you are discussing the different possibilities for infertility diagnosis and treatment with a couple -- 45 year old David and 38 year old Anita. You ask Anita for her menstrual dates for the past 6 months and the duration of menstruation for each of her period.
Anita's answers:
Menstrual duration: 5-6 days
Time between periods: 30-34 days
Assume that Anita’s menstrual flow begins today (this lab day is day 1 of her menstrual cycle) when answering the following questions:
1. On approximately what date would Anita ovulate?
2. On what dates would Anita most likely have a successful fertilization? Hint: You need to find out what the average viability of the sperm is.
3. What would the first study to be indicated to David?
1. The menstrual cycle occurs from day 1 to day 28. The ovulation day for a female is estimated at day 14. For instance, Anita, if she has a menstrual duration of 5-6 days and a time between periods of 30-34 days, then assuming the duration to be 5 days, she'll start her next period between days 35 to 39. Therefore, her ovulation period will be between day 19 to day 23.
2. the average sperm viability is between 3 to 5 days, if Anita ovulated on day 19, the sperm would remain viable until day 24. Therefore, Anita is most likely to have successful fertilization from day 19 to day 24.
3. For infertility issues, there are several studies that may be indicated to David and the initial study recommended is semen analysis. Semen analysis is carried out to determine the quality and quantity of the sperm, including the motility and morphology.
Purpose of the menstrual cycle:
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Hunter is 88 year old , was admitted to the hospital after developing left-sided facial drooping, slurred speech, and confusion last night during brunch with his family. He was taken to the emergency department where imaging of his brain showed a stroke. Hunters past medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism, BPH, and atrial fibrillation. The doctor told Hunter and his family that the cause of his stroke was likely his atrial fibrillation. Based on this statement by the doctor, which type of stroke do you suspect Hunter suffered: an ischemic or a hemorrhagic stroke? How can atrial fibrillation cause a stroke? What other factors put Hunter at risk for a stroke?
can you please explain briefly
The type of stroke Hunter suffered. A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted. There are two types of stroke: ischemic stroke and hemorrhagic stroke.
An ischemic stroke is the most frequent type, accounting for approximately 80% of all strokes. The other is a hemorrhagic stroke, which is responsible for the remaining 20%. According to the doctor's statement, Hunter's stroke was caused by atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of ischemic stroke. This occurs because atrial fibrillation causes the blood in the atria to pool, allowing blood clots to form. These clots can travel to the brain, resulting in an ischemic stroke. Based on the doctor's statement, it is most likely that Hunter suffered an ischemic stroke.
Hunter has a number of other health issues that put him at risk for a stroke. These include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism, and BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). These are all risk factors for atherosclerosis, which can lead to ischemic strokes. High blood pressure is one of the leading causes of hemorrhagic strokes. Additionally, because Hunter is 88 years old, his age puts him at risk for a stroke.
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To prepare for the live classroom session and your written submission, use your chapter readings and course materials.
The focus for this live classroom is a discussion about diet therapy for a 58 year old woman who experienced her first MI and is being discharged home. She currently works full time and is divorced. She lives in an apartment and has no family in the surrounding community.
To prepare for the live classroom session and your written submission, use your chapter readings, review of videos, course materials, research, and written assignments.
Be prepared to discuss the following:
What should be the focus for her nutritional history and assessment?
What dietary recommendations should be made?
What obstacles to staying on the diet recommended might this woman encounter?
What special considerations should you, as a nurse, be aware of?
To prepare for the classroom session, focus on dietary recommendations for a 58-year-old woman who had an MI and lives alone. Consider the obstacles and special considerations for nurses.
Nutritional history and assessment should focus on the patient's dietary preferences, food habits, and physical activity level. It's essential to consider any medical conditions, medications, and personal life circumstances such as her job, living situation, and social support system. Based on her needs, dietary recommendations could include reducing sodium, saturated fat, and added sugars, while increasing fiber, fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
Obstacles for staying on the recommended diet might include financial constraints, accessibility to healthy food options, and a lack of time. Nurses should be aware of the patient's health literacy, cultural background, and any cognitive or physical limitations that may impact her adherence to the diet. Additionally, it's important to involve the patient in developing a personalized plan that addresses her needs, preferences, and barriers to success.
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Cite reference page(s) from the Timby textbook.
Susan Watts, a 30-year-old female client, was diagnosed with schizophrenia and was treated with paliperidone (Invega) 9 mg PO every day and benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg PO2× a day. The client arrives at the clinic and is exhibiting the following symptoms. She is repeating what is said to her (echolalia) and is telling you that the sirens are loud and the paramedics are working hard to save the man. She yells over at the paramedics, she sees and tells them they are doing a great job. She has a flat affect and is bouncing her knees up and down as she sits staring at the wall where she is seeing and hearing the hallucination. Her husband is with her and stated he is worried about his wife because she has not bathed, washed, or combed her hair for 2 days now. She has not gone to work for the past week. He stated that she keeps failing to take her medications even with reminding. The client’s husband asks the LPN/LVN if there is any way the drug therapy could be managed differently so his wife will be more compliant.
(Learning Objective14)
a. What can be done to help improve the client’s compliance with the medications?
b. Explain the administration considerations for the prescribed medications. (Use a drug handbook or use
a. The medication regimen can be changed to include long-acting injectable medication instead of oral medication to improve the client’s compliance with the medications. It can be given every two weeks rather than every day, ensuring the client takes the medication, and there is no need for daily medication administration.
b. Explain the administration considerations for the prescribed medications. (Use a drug handbook or use a reference page(s) from the Timby textbook.)Invega (paliperidone) is used to treat schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder. It is an antipsychotic medication that functions by balancing the levels of dopamine and serotonin in the brain. Paliperidone is available in extended-release tablets in dosages ranging from 1.5 mg to 12 mg. The suggested starting dose is 6 mg per day. It should be taken once a day, with or without food. It must be swallowed whole and should not be chewed, divided, or crushed.
Cogentin (benztropine) is an anticholinergic medication that is used to alleviate Parkinsonism and extrapyramidal disorders caused by antipsychotic medications such as Invega. It helps to minimize involuntary movements, tremors, and rigidity. Benztropine is available in 0.5-mg and 1-mg tablets and is taken orally. The usual dosage range is 2 mg to 6 mg per day, divided into two or three doses. It should be taken at the same time every day, with or without meals.
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Nursing Note: Brad Jones, a 54-year-old Caucasian male, is in the emergency department reporting severe diffuse abdominal pain. He told the triage nurse that he swallowed part of a toothpick from his chicken cordon bleu dinner last night. He has profuse diaphoresis; his shirt is drenched with perspitation. While ambulating to his room, he was holding his abdomen and moaning. His vital signs are BP 128/72, HR88, RR 22, temperature of 98.8 ∘
. and SpO298% on room air. His skin is cool and moist, and his abdomen is distended. 1. What are the top three priority assessment findings or cues that must be recognized as clinically significant by the nurse? a. b. 2. What is the underlying cause/pathophysiology? a. 3. What body systems will you most thoroughly assess? a, b. 4. What is a priority nursing diagnosis? a. 5. What is the patient likely feeling right now?
1) The top three are;
Severe diffuse abdominal pain
Profuse diaphoresis and cool, moist skin
Abdominal distention
2) The underlying cause/pathophysiology in this case is likely a gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation caused by swallowing part of a toothpick.
3) Assess the Cardiovascular system
4) The nurse should assess and monitor the intensity of the pain
5) The patient is likely feeling intense pain, discomfort, and anxiety due to the severe abdominal pain
What is the diagnosis?The ingesting of a portion of a toothpick most likely resulted in a gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation, which is the case's underlying etiology and pathophysiology. The digestive tract may become damaged or obstructed as a result of the toothpick, which could result in complications and excruciating abdominal pain.
The patient's vital indicators, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and skin temperature (coolness, dampness), show that the cardiovascular system needs to be regularly monitored. It is critical to look for shock or compromised perfusion symptoms.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with partial and full thickness burns over 25% of the total body surface area
The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with partial and full-thickness burns over 25% of the total body surface area.
Burns are injuries to the skin caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, sunlight, or radiation. The depth and extent of the burn injury determine the severity of the burn. In the present scenario, the nurse needs to assess the burn area, the degree of burns, and monitor the client's vital signs and fluid balance.What are partial and full-thickness burns?Partial-thickness burns (also known as second-degree burns) affect the epidermis and the dermis layers of the skin.
The client must be provided with proper pain management, and their nutritional needs must be assessed and addressed. The nurse should provide emotional support to the client and their family, educate them about the care of the burn area, wound healing, and follow-up care. The nurse should also assess the client's psychological needs and provide the necessary counseling and referrals. Burn care is a multidisciplinary approach, and the nurse should work in collaboration with other healthcare providers to provide optimal care to the client.
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Amniocentesis involves: ____
A. taking a picture of the baby in the womb to date the pregnancy.
B. inserting a catheter into the mother's abdomen to remove a sample of the baby's blood.
C. inserting a syringe into the uterus and extracting a sample of amniotic fluid.
D. testing a parent's blood to find out whether they carry a problematic gene.
Amniocentesis involves extracting a sample of amniotic fluid from the uterus for prenatal diagnostic purposes during pregnancy.
Amniocentesis is a medical procedure performed during pregnancy where a syringe is inserted into the uterus to collect a small amount of amniotic fluid. This fluid contains fetal cells and genetic material, allowing for various diagnostic tests to be performed. The collected sample is analyzed in a laboratory to detect chromosomal abnormalities, genetic disorders, or certain birth defects. Amniocentesis provides important information about the health and development of the fetus, assisting in making informed decisions regarding the pregnancy.
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leadership and management Nancy/ Duphily
question 4
How do the leaders in your work setting interact with each
ofher and with the nursing staff?
The leaders in the work setting interact with each other and the nursing staff through communication and collaboration to ensure effective leadership and management.
Leadership and management are critical components of every workplace, especially in the healthcare setting. Leaders in healthcare settings interact with one another and with the nursing staff through effective communication, collaboration, and teamwork. They work together to ensure that they are managing the facility efficiently and providing the best possible care for the patients.
Leaders in healthcare settings often work in teams and collaborate with one another to make important decisions that affect the facility and the nursing staff. They also interact with the nursing staff by providing them with the necessary support, resources, and training that they need to perform their jobs effectively. Leaders who interact well with their staff and show appreciation for their work, create a positive working environment that motivates staff to be more productive.
In conclusion, leaders in healthcare settings interact with one another and with the nursing staff through communication and collaboration. They work together to ensure that the facility is being managed efficiently, and that the patients are receiving the best possible care. Effective leadership and management are critical in healthcare settings as they help to improve the quality of patient care.
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